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Discendo Vox
Mar 21, 2013
Probation
Can't post for 11 hours!

AreWeDrunkYet posted:

It is well established that loosening campaign finance restrictions creates less democratic outcomes.

Got a source for this? How are you defining "democratic outcomes"?

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euphronius
Feb 18, 2009

They might be less democratic but they are probably more Constitutional.

AreWeDrunkYet
Jul 8, 2006

Discendo Vox posted:

Got a source for this? How are you defining "democratic outcomes"?

Representative based on population preferences, rather than the preferences of, say, an inherited gentry. Or for the purposes of this discussion, capital.

Hieronymous posted a an article about a comprehensive study of how capital can undermine democratic preferences, and there is plenty of data showing that policy outcomes are influenced by spending.

Kalman
Jan 17, 2010

AreWeDrunkYet posted:

Representative based on population preferences, rather than the preferences of, say, an inherited gentry. Or for the purposes of this discussion, capital.

Hieronymous posted a an article about a comprehensive study of how capital can undermine democratic preferences, and there is plenty of data showing that policy outcomes are influenced by spending.

You know why the preferences associated with rich people get enacted?

Because Congress is essentially universally made up of rich people.

You know why business is good at getting their preferences in obscure areas? Because Congress doesn't have any internal preferences on it, and business presents a case for it and no counter case is presented.

It has essentially nothing to do with campaign finance (which operates in the inverse of your proposition - people don't do what you like because you gave to them, you give to people who are already in agreement with you on things). Lobbying is effective, but only on issues where there isn't any sort of established orthodoxy - you can't lobby effectively on abortion or income tax rates because views there are essentially set, but you can lobby effectively on how to interpret a research tax credit provision with regards to quasi-research spending on improving logistics because no one cares other than you.

The data shows that policy outcomes correlate with people who spend (in certain specific circumstances) and not in others. What it fails to do is account for the fact that the relationship isn't causative on the campaign finance side.

evilweasel
Aug 24, 2002

Kalman posted:

You know why the preferences associated with rich people get enacted?

Because Congress is essentially universally made up of rich people.

there's a bucketload of bad assumptions in these two sentences that need to be unpacked but the most obvious is why is congress made up of only rich people

Kalman posted:

It has essentially nothing to do with campaign finance (which operates in the inverse of your proposition - people don't do what you like because you gave to them, you give to people who are already in agreement with you on things).

the bad assumption here is that purchasing the election for a sympathetic representative as opposed to purchasing the representative's sympathies is a meaningful distinction as to how corrupted the government is by campaign finance

Discendo Vox
Mar 21, 2013
Probation
Can't post for 11 hours!
"gentry"?

The Rochester article is actually a book ad. The Princeton "oligarchy" study was methodologically garbage, and also doesn't demonstrate the claimed effects for the reasons Kalman outlines, even if it were valid.

Kalman
Jan 17, 2010

evilweasel posted:

there's a bucketload of bad assumptions in these two sentences that need to be unpacked but the most obvious is why is congress made up of only rich people

That's not an assumption, that's factual.

I'd go with "because they can afford to take a shot at running without it being personally ruinous and are more likely to have the necessary connections", personally. It's still not actually evidence for the idea that rich people exert influence on the views of politicians via campaign donations.

quote:

the bad assumption here is that purchasing the election for a sympathetic representative as opposed to purchasing the representative's sympathies is a meaningful distinction as to how corrupted the government is by campaign finance

It's not "corrupt" to try to get someone elected who you agree with, though. That's kind of what politics is.

AreWeDrunkYet
Jul 8, 2006

Kalman posted:

It's not "corrupt" to try to get someone elected who you agree with, though. That's kind of what politics is.

And yet capital has outsized influence on politics, impacting who wins elections and by extension the policy choices made by those people. This is inherently undemocratic, that it's not "corrupt" is only because allowing private money to influence politics is legally built into our political system.

Name Change
Oct 9, 2005


AreWeDrunkYet posted:

And yet capital has outsized influence on politics, impacting who wins elections and by extension the policy choices made by those people. This is inherently undemocratic, that it's not "corrupt" is only because allowing private money to influence politics is legally built into our political system.

But you see, it's not corrupt because it's a clear cause and effect relationship! Inescapable facts can't be corrupt!

Hieronymous Alloy
Jan 30, 2009


Why! Why!! Why must you refuse to accept that Dr. Hieronymous Alloy's Genetically Enhanced Cream Corn Is Superior to the Leading Brand on the Market!?!




Morbid Hound

AreWeDrunkYet posted:

This is a very Robertsesque argument. You can't prove that any single campaign donation/PAC donation influences a politician, therefore the entire campaign finance system does not present any evidence of corruption. Meanwhile billions of dollars continue to flow and policy continues to favor the donors - but surely that's just a coincidence?

It is well established that loosening campaign finance restrictions creates less democratic outcomes. But law has a problem with requiring a mechanism of causality to a fault. Look at how disparate impact laws are under attack, even where the racism they mitigate is blatant. Good population data is stronger evidence for most effects than any individual detailed example, but lawyers keep pretending the latter is the gold standard.

Yup, this is the debate in a nutshell, at least from my perspective. The conclusion is well supported and easily inferable, but not conclusively provable in the sense that an individual person can be proven guilty, so lawyers and judges are by their training going to reject it.

Very similar to the problem with getting courts to recognize the judicial system's institutional bias against African-Americans. The data is extremely clear in the aggregate, but always hard to prove in the individual case, plus it leads to a conclusion against the interest of judges ("my decisions are racist"), so courts refuse to accept it even though it's about as well established scientifically as global warming.

fool of sound
Oct 10, 2012
The problem is, even with wholly taxpayer funded campaigns, capital will still strongly influence politics. The wealthy can buy independent ads, they can write editorials that papers are likely to publish, the can talk about politics during TV interviews; all things average people can't do. I can't imagine a constitutional way to seriously regulate any of that.

WhiskeyJuvenile
Feb 15, 2002

by Nyc_Tattoo
I think the problem is less capital's influence on elections and more the very existence of capital

GlyphGryph
Jun 23, 2013

Down came the glitches and burned us in ditches and we slept after eating our dead.

Kalman posted:

It's not "corrupt" to try to get someone elected who you agree with, though. That's kind of what politics is.

So it's not corruption if the politician is the one who makes the offer to do what you want in exchange for funding, that's just politics? I'm honestly not even sure if I disagree with that.

All this conversation is doing so far is convincing me corruption as a general term is basically meaningless and that this whole thing is coming down to Jacobellis v. Ohio situation.

Deteriorata
Feb 6, 2005

WhiskeyJuvenile posted:

I think the problem is less capital's influence on elections and more the very existence of capital

Every problem can be solved with a Marxist revolution.

WhiskeyJuvenile
Feb 15, 2002

by Nyc_Tattoo
Rich people do too much __________ basically describes everything wrong with America tbqh

icantfindaname
Jul 1, 2008


Deteriorata posted:

Every problem can be solved with a Marxist revolution.

:agreed:

computer parts
Nov 18, 2010

PLEASE CLAP

AreWeDrunkYet posted:

Representative based on population preferences, rather than the preferences of, say, an inherited gentry. Or for the purposes of this discussion, capital.

Issue: it is very hard to determine what the population's preference is, much less whether the status quo is what they want or not.

Kalman
Jan 17, 2010

GlyphGryph posted:

So it's not corruption if the politician is the one who makes the offer to do what you want in exchange for funding, that's just politics? I'm honestly not even sure if I disagree with that.

I think that a politician saying "I'll try to enact a thing if you fund my campaign" is Bernie Sanders. Supporting a candidate you agree with is what you're supposed to do. A system that tries to or even could prevent that probably should be unconstitutional.

euphronius
Feb 18, 2009

"Corruption" is a meaningless slur and imho you really should shy away from using it.

Solkanar512
Dec 28, 2006

by the sex ghost

euphronius posted:

"Corruption" is a meaningless slur and imho you really should shy away from using it.

What about "conflict of interest"?

euphronius
Feb 18, 2009

Solkanar512 posted:

What about "conflict of interest"?

Much better because it has a technical definition wrt lawyers and corporate law.

Solkanar512
Dec 28, 2006

by the sex ghost

euphronius posted:

Much better because it has a technical definition wrt lawyers and corporate law.

Would you mind posting or linking the definition you have in mind, in case there are significant differences or caveats that might not be apparent to a layperson?

icantfindaname
Jul 1, 2008


euphronius posted:

Much better because it has a technical definition wrt lawyers and corporate law.

What is the exact 'interest' of a politician? Who are they supposed to represent? I don't think that has a clear technical definition

Harold Fjord
Jan 3, 2004
But as we established too technical a definition and suddenly we can't do anything about it because it's harder to prove specific instances.

Tempest_56
Mar 14, 2009

Hieronymous Alloy posted:

Yup, this is the debate in a nutshell, at least from my perspective. The conclusion is well supported and easily inferable, but not conclusively provable in the sense that an individual person can be proven guilty, so lawyers and judges are by their training going to reject it.

Very similar to the problem with getting courts to recognize the judicial system's institutional bias against African-Americans. The data is extremely clear in the aggregate, but always hard to prove in the individual case, plus it leads to a conclusion against the interest of judges ("my decisions are racist"), so courts refuse to accept it even though it's about as well established scientifically as global warming.

This is a core to the problem, really. Speaking fees are a great example - plenty of non- and ex-politicians get speaking fees without anybody saying boo, and there are plenty of legitimate reasons for organizations to want a big name to speak and are willing to pay for it. Can someone prove that Hillary was given the fee as a thinly-veiled bribe, or is it because she's one of the most well-recognized politicians in US politics in the last 30 years? What about Bill's fees? Does he get singled out from other ex-Presidents even though they're almost certainly using some of their money to support other politicians, solely because it's his wife and not his brother or son? What about Sarah Palin's idiot daughter and her speaking fees, is that a corrupt donation? If I get Al Franken for something, is it shady politics or do I just like his work as a comedian?

Any of those could be legitimate, or they could be corruption, and how the hell do you prove it?

PerniciousKnid
Sep 13, 2006

WhiskeyJuvenile posted:

I think the problem is less capital's influence on elections and more the very existence of capital

I think it's less the existence of capital than the accretion of capital.

icantfindaname
Jul 1, 2008


PerniciousKnid posted:

I think it's less the existence of capital than the accretion of capital.

private ownership of capital is incompatible with democracy

RuanGacho
Jun 20, 2002

"You're gunna break it!"

icantfindaname posted:

private ownership of capital is incompatible with democracy

I'm actually not so sure about this as so much as I'm becoming convinced it's incompatible with representative democracy.

euphronius
Feb 18, 2009

icantfindaname posted:

private ownership of capital is incompatible with democracy

Yeah I agree with that but you can understand how that Mindset doesn't exactly jive with the Constitution.

PerniciousKnid
Sep 13, 2006

icantfindaname posted:

private ownership of capital is incompatible with democracy

But most people like to own things, so lack of private ownership is incompatible with democracy.

icantfindaname
Jul 1, 2008


RuanGacho posted:

I'm actually not so sure about this as so much as I'm becoming convinced it's incompatible with representative democracy.

Fun fact: British liberals/Whigs originally explicitly acknowledged that it was property that should be represented in government, not the popular will in a one man one vote sense. When the Great Reform Act was passed in 1832 the justification for reapportioning seats for the House of Commons was not that the people were not being represented but that the new industries and property/capital created by the Industrial Revolution were not. Corporations used to be able to vote in certain elections in Britain, until the 1940s IIRC

PerniciousKnid posted:

But most people like to own things, so lack of private ownership is incompatible with democracy.

Are all things that people can own capital?

RuanGacho
Jun 20, 2002

"You're gunna break it!"

I was thinking, and this is crazy I know, that the whole of human history of having specific people elected to leadership might be a baseline flaw in the societal configuration. I haven't thought too deeply on it other than it makes some sort of weird sense to me that we should vote for policy coalitions and then the people who formally organize those positions would send faceless staff to accomplish those goals, leaving the house a policy thunderdome.

But that would all be unconstitutional so never mind!

Hieronymous Alloy
Jan 30, 2009


Why! Why!! Why must you refuse to accept that Dr. Hieronymous Alloy's Genetically Enhanced Cream Corn Is Superior to the Leading Brand on the Market!?!




Morbid Hound

Tempest_56 posted:

This is a core to the problem, really. Speaking fees are a great example - plenty of non- and ex-politicians get speaking fees without anybody saying boo, and there are plenty of legitimate reasons for organizations to want a big name to speak and are willing to pay for it. Can someone prove that Hillary was given the fee as a thinly-veiled bribe, or is it because she's one of the most well-recognized politicians in US politics in the last 30 years? What about Bill's fees? Does he get singled out from other ex-Presidents even though they're almost certainly using some of their money to support other politicians, solely because it's his wife and not his brother or son? What about Sarah Palin's idiot daughter and her speaking fees, is that a corrupt donation? If I get Al Franken for something, is it shady politics or do I just like his work as a comedian?

Any of those could be legitimate, or they could be corruption, and how the hell do you prove it?

I don't think it's possible to eliminate corruption; all we can do is mitigate. Other nations have managed to figure out how to have less inequality, more balanced elections, etc. We just need to change the Court's makeup and get justices in there that understand the need for campaign finance regulation, and then we need strong policies in place to limit the influence of big money as much as possible.

Tempest_56
Mar 14, 2009

Hieronymous Alloy posted:

I don't think it's possible to eliminate corruption; all we can do is mitigate. Other nations have managed to figure out how to have less inequality, more balanced elections, etc. We just need to change the Court's makeup and get justices in there that understand the need for campaign finance regulation, and then we need strong policies in place to limit the influence of big money as much as possible.

My critique is more that there's a lot of nuance in things - there's few tests that can reasonably be applied in these cases and most of those fall apart fairly quickly once you get even partway to the edges of the envelope. Access certainly isn't a good test - I can get access to a lot of my local politicos (not Senators and Congresscritters, but state and local) for the price of a good meal or a few drinks. The amount of money isn't either - there's entire industries built around skirting the letter of the law with that. Frequently it's both the intent (of all involved parties) and the actions, and those provide a pretty hefty amount of plausible deniability. And bouncing off what you said before, our system is built to presume innocence rather than guilt.

We absolutely need better rules for campaign finance regulation and limit big money influence, but there's a hell of a lot of particulars and fiddly bits in that. Is it even possible to create a law (or even legal definitions) to address the issue that isn't either uselessly loose or draconian?

Hieronymous Alloy
Jan 30, 2009


Why! Why!! Why must you refuse to accept that Dr. Hieronymous Alloy's Genetically Enhanced Cream Corn Is Superior to the Leading Brand on the Market!?!




Morbid Hound
I think it's definitely possible to improve our current situation. Other countries do it better, and we did it better in the past. I don't buy the narrative that present day America's problems are uniquely intractable.

PerniciousKnid
Sep 13, 2006

icantfindaname posted:

Are all things that people can own capital?
Potentially, yes.

Kalman
Jan 17, 2010

Hieronymous Alloy posted:

I think it's definitely possible to improve our current situation. Other countries do it better, and we did it better in the past. I don't buy the narrative that present day America's problems are uniquely intractable.

Hahaha what the gently caress no we didn't do it better in the past. It's imperfect these days but it's not "donors handing over bags of cash anonymously to pay off politicians for votes is a regularly occurring phenomenon".

(Which it very much used to be.)

Other countries mostly do it better by constraining political speech. That's a trade off that we can't make very easily (and shouldn't make, to my mind, though that's at least a values argument.)

DeusExMachinima
Sep 2, 2012

:siren:This poster loves police brutality, but only when its against minorities!:siren:

Put this loser on ignore immediately!
We're a representative republic, guys. If the will of over half the people was A-priority #1, strict scrutiny would never have existed. Gay marriage would still be illegal and California would still have Prop 8. Unrestricted direct democracy is A Bad Deal and so it's not at all a given that undemocratic things aren't OK in American law because the entire Bill of Rights is undemocratic on purpose.

Tempest_56
Mar 14, 2009

Hieronymous Alloy posted:

I think it's definitely possible to improve our current situation. Other countries do it better, and we did it better in the past. I don't buy the narrative that present day America's problems are uniquely intractable.

I'll bite - how did we used to do it better? There's thousands of stories of political corruption (big and small) running rampant through the US government in more or less every era, so that claim seems kinda hollow. And what other countries are better about it, and what do they do differently that leads to those outcomes?

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fool of sound
Oct 10, 2012

Kalman posted:

Other countries mostly do it better by constraining political speech.

Yeah, it's basically this. There's only very limited ways you can crack down on disproportionate influence constitutionally. Mostly you just have to prosecute blatant corruption and hope for the best. Stricter FEC regulations on campaign cash used for personal expenses might be possible (and considering the sheer number of scampaigns that went down this cycle, it might be advisable). Greater restrictions on politicians becoming lobbyists might also be reasonable, though with the rise of the 'news consultant' circuit, it's not really the problem it once was.

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