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Harold Fjord
Jan 3, 2004

Kalman posted:

As to the rest of it, your "we've tried it and it doesn't work!" isn't accurate. We haven't tried most of it. And other countries have schemes that I reject on first principles - the cure there is far worse than the disease.

FTFY.

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Kalman
Jan 17, 2010


Nah. Case law's on my side regarding this. Sorry you dislike forty years of precedent that we aren't going to regulate personal spending to influence elections because we value political speech, but I'm the one agreeing with Thurgood Marshall here.

Hieronymous Alloy
Jan 30, 2009


Why! Why!! Why must you refuse to accept that Dr. Hieronymous Alloy's Genetically Enhanced Cream Corn Is Superior to the Leading Brand on the Market!?!




Morbid Hound

Kalman posted:



The specific scheme for doing so Arizona proposed was (and should be) because, like you, it treated campaign and independent spending as identical and treated personal spending as equivalent to campaign spending. A straight campaign-for-campaign matching provision would be fine.


Wait -- we're going backwards then. Earlier in the thread you said you agreed the Arizona decision should be overturned.

The problem is that for this issue -- systemic corruption -- campaign spending, independent spending, and personal spending are functionally identical. The reason for that distinction is that some forms of spending give rise to the appearance of quid pro quo corruption and others don't (or rather don't to the same extent or in the same way). That isn't the concern here; the concern is a money Niagara drowning out all dissenting voices. So the cure has to be tied to the overall level of money spent in order to work. If it isn't, the private money just drowns out the public money, and the public funding system is abandoned and/or useless, and people end up literally buying elections. This is precisely the issue that Arizona was trying to address.

quote:

- the cure there is far worse than the disease.

I think you need to support your premise here; Canada, the UK, New Zealand, etc. aren't exactly totalitarian hellholes.

Kalman posted:

Nah. Case law's on my side regarding this.

Arizona was a five-four decision and the court has an open seat at this very moment.

Hieronymous Alloy fucked around with this message at 15:43 on May 2, 2016

30 TO 50 FERAL HOG
Mar 2, 2005



This thread is very confusing when two of the most prolific posters have the same avatar. Just sayin.

botany
Apr 27, 2013

by Lowtax

Kalman posted:

Because when your best evidence is a dissent, you're admitting that the law says you're wrong and hoping that it gets changed. When that hope flies in the face of 40 years of decisions (Bellotti also suggested corporate expenditures caps weren't constitutional and that's almost forty years old, it's just that no one bothered to challenge them in the interim) it's typically a forlorn one.

People point to the dissent because it shows that the outcome would have been different if the court had had one less Alito and one more Sotomayor. This could easily happen, for instance once the Scalia vacancy gets filled. In that case CU would have been defeated 5-4. If the difference between a ruling for and a ruling against simply comes down to what party nominates a judge that time, the outcome under the constitution is a lot less clear than you make it out to be. This also means that it is not at all impossible to change -- simply nominate a judge who expressly holds that CU was a bad decision, get that person confirmed, and find a way to reopen the debate. "The law" is not an objective reality that SCOTUS decisions unearth, it's the result of a debate between lawyers, constitutional scholars, politicians, the public, and special interest groups.

fool of sound
Oct 10, 2012
My understanding of McCain–Feingold was that it only prevented independent organizational money from being spent in explicit support of a candidate. That's probably about as far as it is potentially constitutional to limit independent political spending, and it really wasn't anywhere near as far-reaching as some posters here seem to think.

Harold Fjord
Jan 3, 2004

Kalman posted:

Nah. Case law's on my side regarding this. Sorry you dislike forty years of precedent that... slavery, voting rights, gay marriage

You're entire stance this entire conversation is "i'm right, I always have been, nothing can ever change, stop talking about it" we get it you can stop repeating it every other post.

evilweasel
Aug 24, 2002

Kalman posted:

Because when your best evidence is a dissent, you're admitting that the law says you're wrong and hoping that it gets changed. When that hope flies in the face of 40 years of decisions (Bellotti also suggested corporate expenditures caps weren't constitutional and that's almost forty years old, it's just that no one bothered to challenge them in the interim) it's typically a forlorn one.

I mean, everything I've argue goes out the window if there's a constitutional amendment to overturn CU/Buckley, but that constitutional amendment is never going to happen (and shouldn't, because political speech is more important than the appearance of access and influence, which in and of themselves aren't things we should be trying to eliminate.)

Kalman posted:

Nah. Case law's on my side regarding this. Sorry you dislike forty years of precedent that we aren't going to regulate personal spending to influence elections because we value political speech, but I'm the one agreeing with Thurgood Marshall here.

This is ludicrous. Citizens United overturned two earlier decisions. We are not talking 40 years of precedent. We are talking returning to the precedent from before Citizens United. It is incredibly stupid that you keep arguing that Citizens United is some natural outgrowth of earlier precedent when it was a 5-4 decision overturning earlier precedent, that had a furious dissent from the person who wrote many of the most famous First Amendment decisions. It is a trivial, but correct, thing to say that Citizens United is currently law (though it is very precarious law as it is widely rejected in the legal community, one of the five is dead, and it's very likely his replacement will join the dissent). It is nuts to claim that overturning Citizens United would gut precedent. It's nuts to say that even if you're right that Citizens United was the right decision.

Plus, the craziness of complaining people are citing dissents for a point is pretty apparent because (1) we know Citizens United is currently law, that is why there are no post-CU decisions that nullify it (and there are pre-CU decisions that Citizens United reversed) and (2) that the dissents have a very good shot of becoming the majority opinion next time a case makes it to the Supreme Court, because Scalia is dead and short of the Trumpenreich he's not being replaced with someone who shares his views. Even without that, citing to a dissent that now commands half the court is a perfectly reasonable thing to do when arguing what the decision should be: I mean, the reasoning commanded the votes of four Supreme Court justices so it clearly has some merit, and almost enough that it became law.

As to your point about Thurgood Marshall, he's not on "your side". I assume you're referring to Buckley, but he recognized the problems of allowing the wealthy to have too much political power and dissented in part from Buckey v. Valeo:

quote:

One of the points on which all Members of the Court agree is that money is essential for effective communication in a political campaign. It would appear to follow that the candidate with a substantial personal fortune at his disposal is off to a significant "headstart." Of course, the less wealthy candidate can potentially overcome the disparity in resources through contributions from others. But ability to generate contributions may itself depend upon a showing of a financial base for the campaign or some demonstration of preexisting support, which, in turn, is facilitated by expenditures of substantial personal sums. Thus, the wealthy candidate's immediate access to a substantial personal fortune may give him an initial advantage that his less wealthy opponent can never overcome. And even if the advantage can be overcome, the perception that personal wealth wins elections may not only discourage potential candidates without significant personal wealth from entering the political arena, but also undermine public confidence in the integrity of the electoral process.
...
In view of § 608(b)'s limitations on contributions, then, § 608(a) emerges not simply as a device to reduce the natural advantage of the wealthy candidate, but as a provision providing some symmetry to a regulatory scheme that otherwise enhances the natural advantage of the wealthy. [Footnote 4/2] Regardless of whether the goal of equalizing access would justify a legislative limit on personal candidate expenditures standing by itself, I think it clear that that goal justifies § 608(a)'s limits when they are considered in conjunction with the remainder of the Act.
https://supreme.justia.com/cases/federal/us/424/1/case.html

But I'm sure you could say, well, he voted with the majority on the rest. But one of the foundational decisions that Citizens United overturned was Austin v. Michigan Chamber of Commerce, which upheld the ban on corporations from using treasury money to make independent expenditures to support or oppose candidates in elections. You know who wrote that opinion? Thurgood Marshall.

https://supreme.justia.com/cases/federal/us/494/652/case.html

quote:

Justice MARSHALL delivered the opinion of the Court.

In this appeal, we must determine whether § 54(1) of the Michigan Campaign Finance Act violates either the First or the Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution. Section 54(1) prohibits corporations from using corporate treasury funds for independent expenditures in support of or in opposition to any candidate in elections for state office. Mich.Comp. Laws § 169.254(1) (1979). Corporations are allowed, however, to make such expenditures from segregated funds used solely for political purposes. § 169.255(1). In response to a challenge brought by the Michigan State Chamber of Commerce, the Sixth Circuit held that § 54(1) could not be applied to the Chamber, a Michigan nonprofit corporation, without violating the First Amendment. 856 F.2d 783 (1988). Although we agree that expressive rights are implicated in this case, we hold that application of § 54(1) to the Chamber is constitutional because the provision is narrowly tailored to serve a compelling state interest. Accordingly, we reverse the judgment of the Court of Appeals.

Discendo Vox
Mar 21, 2013

This does not make sense when, again, aggregate indicia also indicate improvements. The belief that things are worse is false. It remains false.
Again, the constant false assertion of corruption is doing all the lifting here. There's no cause for the restriction you want to instantiate.

botany
Apr 27, 2013

by Lowtax

Discendo Vox posted:

Again, the constant false assertion of corruption is doing all the lifting here. There's no cause for the restriction you want to instantiate.

From Stevens' dissent:

quote:

Undergirding the majority’s approach to the merits is the claim that the only “sufficiently important governmental interest in preventing corruption or the appearance of corruption” is one that is “limited to quid pro quo corruption.” Ante , at 43. This is the same “crabbed view of corruption” that was espoused by Justice Kennedy in McConnell and squarely rejected by the Court in that case. 540 U. S., at 152. While it is true that we have not always spoken about corruption in a clear or consistent voice, the approach taken by the majority cannot be right, in my judgment. It disregards our constitutional history and the fundamental demands of a democratic society.

On numerous occasions we have recognized Congress’ legitimate interest in preventing the money that is spent on elections from exerting an “ ‘undue influence on an officeholder’s judgment’ ” and from creating “ ‘the appearance of such influence,’ ” beyond the sphere of quid pro quo relationships. Id., at 150; see also, e.g., id., at 143–144, 152–154; Colorado II , 533 U. S., at 441; Shrink Missouri , 528 U. S., at 389. Corruption can take many forms. Bribery may be the paradigm case. But the difference between selling a vote and selling access is a matter of degree, not kind. And selling access is not qualitatively different from giving special preference to those who spent money on one’s behalf. Corruption operates along a spectrum, and the majority’s apparent belief that quid pro quo arrangements can be neatly demarcated from other improper influences does not accord with the theory or reality of politics. It certainly does not accord with the record Congress developed in passing BCRA, a record that stands as a remarkable testament to the energy and ingenuity with which corporations, unions, lobbyists, and politicians may go about scratching each other’s backs—and which amply supported Congress’ determination to target a limited set of especially destructive practices.

evilweasel
Aug 24, 2002

Discendo Vox posted:

Again, the constant false assertion of corruption is doing all the lifting here. There's no cause for the restriction you want to instantiate.

That's one of those things I think is simply apparent by being reasonably exposed to the current political process. If you don't, all I'll be citing are things you already know about and aren't sufficiently convinced by. It also might be the a major split between the Roberts wing and the more liberal wing of the Court, which mirrors what we're discussing, about just what counts as corruption. I view the corruption of the system in general - even if no particular legislator has been guilty of the sort of explicit corruption that can be criminalized - as a problem that creates a compelling state and federal interest.

The other issue is that people can point to the presidential elections as a "look, it's not so bad" because the big money opposed Obama in 2012 and will oppose Clinton in 2016 and Obama won and Clinton is favored. But the farther downballot you get, the less that's true - and farther down matters, because winning a state legislature lets you gerrymander that state legislature AND its congressional districts. Winning judicial elections lets you gut portions of state constitutions.

But I'm sure you've seen all those and if your opinion hasn't been changed there's not much I can point to that will. But everyone in this discussion is broadly familiar with the current influence money is having on politics so I don't really see the point in belaboring it. If this were a court, of course we'd need to do that because you have to lay it out in your papers, but on an internet politics forum we can rely on everyone's general awareness of the current state of politics.

30 TO 50 FERAL HOG
Mar 2, 2005



If someone's position is literally "No this is perfectly fine and is not corruption" then we should probably all save our breath because nothing is going convince them. I realize this is debate and discussion, but I think we all have better things to do than debate with someone who insists the sky is red.

quote:

the preferences of the average American appear to have only a minuscule, near-zero, statistically non-significant impact upon public policy



https://scholar.princeton.edu/sites/default/files/mgilens/files/gilens_and_page_2014_-testing_theories_of_american_politics.doc.pdf

30 TO 50 FERAL HOG fucked around with this message at 17:47 on May 2, 2016

Deteriorata
Feb 6, 2005

BiohazrD posted:

If someone's position is literally "No this is perfectly fine and is not corruption" then we should probably all save our breath because nothing is going convince them. I realize this is debate and discussion, but I think we all have better things to do than debate with someone who insists the sky is red.

To me, that's the core of the problem. A rigorous definition of "corruption" is necessary if you're going to have laws that prohibit one kind of behavior as corrupt, but allow another because it is not.

That people obviously well-versed in the law can't even agree is pretty telling. What's obvious to one is not at all obvious to the other.

silvergoose
Mar 18, 2006

IT IS SAID THE TEARS OF THE BWEENIX CAN HEAL ALL WOUNDS




So on another topic, an opinion was released today, with Sotomayor and Roberts dissenting together. I have no idea what this case is on about. Anyone know?

30 TO 50 FERAL HOG
Mar 2, 2005



Deteriorata posted:

To me, that's the core of the problem. A rigorous definition of "corruption" is necessary if you're going to have laws that prohibit one kind of behavior as corrupt, but allow another because it is not.

That people obviously well-versed in the law can't even agree is pretty telling. What's obvious to one is not at all obvious to the other.

Roberts' dissent from CU was just posted but here you go

quote:

On numerous occasions we have recognized Congress’ legitimate interest in preventing the money that is spent on elections from exerting an “ ‘undue influence on an officeholder’s judgment’ ” and from creating “ ‘the appearance of such influence,’ ” beyond the sphere of quid pro quo relationships. Id., at 150; see also, e.g., id., at 143–144, 152–154; Colorado II , 533 U. S., at 441; Shrink Missouri , 528 U. S., at 389

The definition of corruption is not that important. As the appearance of influence is sufficient.

Deteriorata
Feb 6, 2005

BiohazrD posted:

Roberts' dissent from CU was just posted but here you go


The definition of corruption is not that important. As the appearance of influence is sufficient.

You've just moved the goalposts. Define what "appearance of corruption" is so we can pass laws to avoid it. Note that your definition must be rigorous and objective, agreeable to all.

evilweasel
Aug 24, 2002

Deteriorata posted:

You've just moved the goalposts. Define what "appearance of corruption" is so we can pass laws to avoid it. Note that your definition must be rigorous and objective, agreeable to all.

No it doesn't. What the hell are you even talking about? This idea that a test must be objective and agreeable to all is nonsense, especially in the first amendment space.

If you doubt me, define "public figure" in a rigorous and objective way, agreeable to all.

Harold Fjord
Jan 3, 2004

Discendo Vox posted:

Again, the constant false assertion of corruption is doing all the lifting here. There's no cause for the restriction you want to instantiate.

According to you. Yet clearly lots of other people disagree so you saying "nononono" doesn't seem to be getting anywhere. Maybe you can just let the discussion proceed and we'll all make a little mental note that you disagree and keep talking about it. Fair?

silvergoose posted:

So on another topic, an opinion was released today, with Sotomayor and Roberts dissenting together. I have no idea what this case is on about. Anyone know?

Actually pretty straightforward and I'm with them.

quote:

Petitioner Samuel Ocasio, a former police officer, participated in a
kickback scheme in which he and other officers routed damaged vehicles
from accident scenes to an auto repair shop in exchange for payments
from the shopowners. Petitioner was charged with obtaining
money from the shopowners under color of official right, in violation
of the Hobbs Act, 18 U. S. C. §1951, and of conspiring to violate the
Hobbs Act, in violation of 18 U. S. C. §371. At trial, the District
Court rejected petitioner’s argument that—because the Hobbs Act
prohibits the obtaining of property “from another”—a Hobbs Act conspiracy
requires proof that the alleged conspirators agreed to obtain
property from someone outside the conspiracy.

quote:

JUSTICE SOTOMAYOR, with whom THE CHIEF JUSTICE
joins, dissenting.
If a group of conspirators sets out to extort “another”
person, we ordinarily think that they are proposing to
extort money or property from a victim outside their
group, not one of themselves. Their group is the conspiratorial
entity and the victim is “another” person.
But in upholding the conspiracy conviction here, the
Court interprets the phrase extorting property “from
another” in the Hobbs Act contrary to that natural understanding.
It holds that a group of conspirators can
agree to obtain property “from another” in violation of the
Act even if they agree only to transfer property among
themselves.
That is not a natural or logical way to interpret the
phrase “from another.” I respectfully dissent.

Deteriorata
Feb 6, 2005

evilweasel posted:

No it doesn't. What the hell are you even talking about? This idea that a test must be objective and agreeable to all is nonsense, especially in the first amendment space.

If you doubt me, define "public figure" in a rigorous and objective way, agreeable to all.

What constitutes the appearance of corruption is going to vary enormously depending on your point of view. Finding a position that even a majority agrees with would be all but impossible.

Yes, I was using a bit of hyperbole to suggest how difficult the task would be.

evilweasel
Aug 24, 2002

The idea that we need to carefully define corruption and the appearance of corruption can be put to bed by this majority decision which upheld a ban on the personal solicitation of donations by judicial candidates based on the compelling state interest in avoiding the appearance of impropriety in its judiciary:

quote:

The concept of public confidence in judicial integrity does not easily reduce to precise definition, nor does it lend itself to proof by documentary record. But no one denies that it is genuine and compelling.
http://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/14pdf/13-1499_d18e.pdf

Now, Roberts feels this only applies to elected judges, not politicians, and would strenuously argue against the expansion of this doctrine to politicians. But it makes clear that it is not necessary that we exhaustively and objectively prove such a common-sense concept.

As a separate note, that this opinion's eyerolling at Justice Kennedy's ranting about what a terrible violation of speech it is to ban personal solicitation of donations is well-deserved and fantastic, coming from Roberts, and roughly matches my opinion of the parade of horribles that people come up with from standard campaign finance laws:

quote:

By any measure, Canon 7C(1) restricts a narrow slice of speech. A reader of JUSTICE KENNEDY’s dissent could be forgiven for concluding that the Court has just upheld a latter-day version of the Alien and Sedition Acts, approving “state censorship” that “locks the First Amendment out,” imposes a “gag” on candidates, and inflicts “dead weight” on a “silenced” public debate. Post, at 2–4. But in reality, Canon 7C(1) leaves judicial candidates free to discuss any issue with any person at any time. Candidates can write letters, give speeches, and put up billboards. They can contact potential supporters in person, on the phone, or online. They can promote their campaigns on radio, television, or other media. They cannot say, “Please give me money.” They can, however, direct their campaign committees to do so. Whatever else may be said of the Canon, it is surely not a “wildly disproportionate restriction upon speech.” Post, at 1 (SCALIA, J., dissenting).

edit:

Deteriorata posted:

What constitutes the appearance of corruption is going to vary enormously depending on your point of view. Finding a position that even a majority agrees with would be all but impossible.

Yes, I was using a bit of hyperbole to suggest how difficult the task would be.

I think that Roberts quote above sums up my response to this nicely.

evilweasel
Aug 24, 2002

Nevvy Z posted:


Actually pretty straightforward and I'm with them.

This line in the case pretty much solves it the other way for me:

quote:

As all parties agree, the type of extortion for which petitioner was convicted—obtaining property from another with his consent and under color of official right—is the “rough equivalent of what we would now describe as ‘taking a bribe.’ ” Evans v. United States, 504 U. S. 255, 260 (1992). To prove this offense, the Government “need only show that a public official has obtained a payment to which he was not entitled, knowing that the payment was made in return for official acts.”

Once you've made that concession, I don't see how you get out of being guilty as hell. If you conceded that the statute was worded oddly but boils down to "taking a bribe", then it makes perfect sense that the person giving the bribe can be in a conspiracy with the person taking the bribe.

Discendo Vox
Mar 21, 2013

This does not make sense when, again, aggregate indicia also indicate improvements. The belief that things are worse is false. It remains false.

BiohazrD posted:

If someone's position is literally "No this is perfectly fine and is not corruption" then we should probably all save our breath because nothing is going convince them. I realize this is debate and discussion, but I think we all have better things to do than debate with someone who insists the sky is red.




https://scholar.princeton.edu/sites/default/files/mgilens/files/gilens_and_page_2014_-testing_theories_of_american_politics.doc.pdf

Will people stop citing that circular pile of garbage! The authors operationalized their definitions based on the outcomes they wanted to claim, used selective data, and bullshitted their entire representation theory framing. Wakefield published more valid research.

Nevvy Z posted:

According to you. Yet clearly lots of other people disagree so you saying "nononono" doesn't seem to be getting anywhere. Maybe you can just let the discussion proceed and we'll all make a little mental note that you disagree and keep talking about it. Fair?

Not when they can't find or demonstrate the harm they assert, no. The entire argument is to prevaricate between 1) arguing the sufficiency of "appearance", as a) undefined, or b) cited to different settings, and 2)asserting that the corruption is so obvious it doesn't need to be demonstrated. "Some people have more influence on law than others" is not antidemocratic. Money having an influence in politics in the form of speech is democratic discourse.

Armack
Jan 27, 2006

evilweasel posted:

The other issue is that people can point to the presidential elections as a "look, it's not so bad" because the big money opposed Obama in 2012 and will oppose Clinton in 2016 and Obama won and Clinton is favored.

Although it will finance elections for both parties, in 2016 the big money actually supports Clinton over Trump.

euphronius
Feb 18, 2009

Well we've now moved from corruption to "systematic corruption". I don't what that is.
Assuming some possible definitions I hope you can see how the Supreme Court would never directly address that.

evilweasel
Aug 24, 2002

euphronius posted:

Well we've now moved from corruption to "systematic corruption". I don't what that is.
Assuming some possible definitions I hope you can see how the Supreme Court would never directly address that.

The concept of systemic corruption does not easily reduce to precise definition, nor does it lend itself to proof by documentary record. But no one denies that it is genuine and compelling.

and in a less snarky response, bullshit:

quote:

When we asked in McConnell “whether a compelling governmental interest justifie[d]” §203, we found the question “easily answered”: “We have repeatedly sustained legislation aimed at ‘the corrosive and distorting effects of immense aggregations of wealth that are accumulated with the help of the corporate form and that have little or no correlation to the public’s support for the corporation’s political ideas.’

From the Stevens dissent in Citizens United. So, while I'm sure Kalman will be right along to complain that's a dissent (never mind that it is quoting a majority opinion later overturned, by one of the giants of First Amendment jurisprudence), it's very, very clear that parts of the Court is willing (and has been willing) to address it so, your confusion aside, it is clear that the Supreme Court could indeed directly address that.

evilweasel fucked around with this message at 18:44 on May 2, 2016

euphronius
Feb 18, 2009

Discendo Vox posted:

Money having an influence in politics in the form of speech is democratic discourse.

Yeah exactly. The label of systematic corruption confuses me. Like I understand this system of government is not ideal but this is what we have.

Hieronymous Alloy
Jan 30, 2009


Why! Why!! Why must you refuse to accept that Dr. Hieronymous Alloy's Genetically Enhanced Cream Corn Is Superior to the Leading Brand on the Market!?!




Morbid Hound

euphronius posted:

Well we've now moved from corruption to "systematic corruption". I don't what that is.
Assuming some possible definitions I hope you can see how the Supreme Court would never directly address that.

That's part of why campaign finance is more a legislative issue than a judicial one. The problem is the Court keeps tossing out legislative attempts to address it.

evilweasel
Aug 24, 2002

Discendo Vox posted:

Money having an influence in politics in the form of speech is democratic discourse.

It is not, and see above for Justice Stevens specifically discussing "the corrosive and distorting effects of immense aggregations of wealth that are accumulated with the help of the corporate form and that have little or no correlation to the public’s support for the corporation’s political ideas."

euphronius
Feb 18, 2009

Hieronymous Alloy posted:

That's part of why campaign finance is more a legislative issue than a judicial one. The problem is the Court keeps tossing out legislative attempts to address it.

Right because in part our first amendment and its jurisprudence.

We need a constitutional convention to address the issues "systematic corruption". But that would open a whole can of worms oh boy.

evilweasel
Aug 24, 2002

euphronius posted:

Right because in part our first amendment and its jurisprudence.

We need a constitutional convention to address the issues "systematic corruption". But that would open a whole can of worms oh boy.

It boggles my mind how anyone can be dumb enough to think that a constitutional amendment is required to overturn a 5-4 decision that has been controversial ever since it was made, and where there are currently only four votes that support it. Like, putting disputes over what the answer should be aside, it's ludicrous to hem and haw about the need for a constitutional amendment and argue that overturning Citizens United can't be reconciled with 1st Amendment jurisprudence because that's what the law was from 2003 to 2010. How are you not aware of this?

euphronius
Feb 18, 2009

Wasn't talking about CU (which I like anyway and think has been good).

evilweasel
Aug 24, 2002

euphronius posted:

Wasn't talking about CU (which I like anyway and think has been good).

"the corrosive and distorting effects of immense aggregations of wealth that are accumulated with the help of the corporate form and that have little or no correlation to the public’s support for the corporation’s political ideas" is a quote from McConnell, one of a long line of cases severely limiting political spending by corporations based on its corrupting effect, that CU overturned. This is an easy fix for the Supreme Court and there's no reason to act like the Supreme Court could not or would not do it: there are four votes for most of the legal lines of argument being advanced against CU and its ilk and it's very likely that the next judge will make that a 5 vote majority. So it's wrong to act like the Supreme Court will not go there - they have gone there in the past, and exactly half of the current court still wants to go there. The only useful discussion is should they go there.

euphronius
Feb 18, 2009

I agree with that obviously. I mean I agree the court could distinguish or partially overturn cu.

I was talking about "systematic corruption" tho. I thought obviously but apparently not.

Condiv
May 7, 2008

Sorry to undo the effort of paying a domestic abuser $10 to own this poster, but I am going to lose my dang mind if I keep seeing multiple posters who appear to be Baloogan.

With love,
a mod


evilweasel posted:

No it doesn't. What the hell are you even talking about? This idea that a test must be objective and agreeable to all is nonsense, especially in the first amendment space.

If you doubt me, define "public figure" in a rigorous and objective way, agreeable to all.

hell, define pornography

evilweasel
Aug 24, 2002

euphronius posted:

I agree with that obviously. I mean I agree the court could distinguish or partially overturn cu.

I was talking about "systematic corruption" tho. I thought obviously but apparently not.

But that's part of the foundation of all the previous decisions limiting corporate contributions and why I keep quoting that line from McConnell and the CU dissent - that corporate money had or would have a corrosive effect on the democratic process, and that states and the Federal Government were permitted to limit it to avoid those corrosive effects. Systemic corruption is just another way to phrase it: that the system itself is being biased through applying money in order to make the system produce less democratic results. The Supreme Court doesn't demand rigorous definitions for concepts like that because it's not all that useful to rigorously define it when everyone knows generally what you're talking about, and when it's just not possible to be mathematically precise. It's basically going to be the same test that's always been applied "well, this seems important, and we think that it's important enough and the restrictions are drawn in such a way as to maximize the benefit while minimizing the harm (or it's not) so that we will uphold it (or strike it down)".

Anything involving the first amendment is always going to come down to these sorts of fuzzy definitions. In many cases the Supreme Court gets around that by saying "well, the actual line is going to be fuzzy but here's an area where we can agree, as a rule, that a restriction is always banned and we'll have to discuss it if it's on the other side of this line" to minimize the uncertainty and to minimize the need for litigation over what isn't a grey area. But you never really avoid it, even the bright-line rules always have fuzzy definitions in them that you can't really draw out precisely (like "public figure").

The functioning of the democratic process is so important that people have done serious legal theories based on the idea that it is the most important principle that the Supreme Court is required to protect. That may be going a little far, but it's not novel and so the Supreme Court isn't going to bounce arguments on one of the most contentious issues of our time about the democratic process because of fuzziness over definitions.

evilweasel fucked around with this message at 19:18 on May 2, 2016

Discendo Vox
Mar 21, 2013

This does not make sense when, again, aggregate indicia also indicate improvements. The belief that things are worse is false. It remains false.
"Applying money" is a great euphemism for speech, here. I love it. I also enjoy "less democratic results", because it's not reflective of how democratic republicanism is supposed to work. I also appreciate that we've now shifted to corporate spending, in particular. Absolute majoritarianism has never been a good hallmark of government, and variations in how much civic majorities prefer particular policy outcomes aren't material to the health of the general democratic system. If the evidence of "massive, systematic corruption" you seek is Gilens & Page, then please understand that the article is white noise headline bait- it doesn't even demonstrate the non-majoritarian outcomes that it claims, because the authors cherry-picked their data in about 10 different ways to get to a predetermined conclusion.

botany
Apr 27, 2013

by Lowtax

Discendo Vox posted:

Not when they can't find or demonstrate the harm they assert, no.

Stevens cites a variety of supporting claims for his stance that massive spending is either a form or corruption or creates the appearance of corruption, both from independent sources as well as from former SCOTUS decisions.

Jarmak
Jan 24, 2005

Condiv posted:

hell, define pornography

You realize that it took like 8 years for the court to fix that problem and it has been fixed for more then 40 years right?

Discendo Vox
Mar 21, 2013

This does not make sense when, again, aggregate indicia also indicate improvements. The belief that things are worse is false. It remains false.

botany posted:

Stevens cites a variety of supporting claims for his stance that massive spending is either a form or corruption or creates the appearance of corruption, both from independent sources as well as from former SCOTUS decisions.

Do you have a particular point in his decision for these? I'm working my way through to find them, but most of the opinion appears to hinge on the corporate personhood argument, and so far I don't actually see any citations to it as of page 15. So far the closest is FNs 14 and 15, but neither is on point with the amount spent claim, and 15 was left open by the majority opinion anyways.

edit: it looks like Stevens' arguments regarding amount are always expressed via the corporate/union antidistortion argument, via Austin. Are these what you're referring to? They appear to hinge on a different argument than pure quantity, particularly starting at 32.

edit 2: the language on 27 beginning at "In many ways" is a pretty nice illustration of eliding the content/viewpoint analysis problem.


vvvv Dangit, I shoulda checked those first, it would've saved me a bunch of pages.

Discendo Vox fucked around with this message at 21:23 on May 2, 2016

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WhiskeyJuvenile
Feb 15, 2002

by Nyc_Tattoo

botany posted:

From Stevens' dissent:

Someone should cite this as amicus in McDonnell, quick.

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