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GoochBag
Mar 10, 2008

All right! Let's go get some men!
I've been making $100 monthly payments to MRS Associates for a Chase account I defaulted on in 2007. Before they contacted me, they had actually gotten ahold of my parents who then called me about it. This happened a few times. I asked them not to contact my parents any more, and they haven't since. Knowing now that contacting friends or family about your debt is a violation of the FDCPA, do you think it's plausible to use that against them? If so, how? Or did that go out the window when I started making payments?

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GoochBag
Mar 10, 2008

All right! Let's go get some men!

CubsWoo posted:

Possible, but very, very difficult due to the time in-between. You can still ask them to validate at this point, regardless of your payment status.

I only started making payments in July of 2009, which is when they began contacting me. I've now paid them $900 of a $2,199 debt. Does that change anything at all with my previous question?

Edit for original question: "I've been making $100 monthly payments to MRS Associates for a Chase account I defaulted on in 2007. Before they contacted me, they had actually gotten ahold of my parents who then called me about it. This happened a few times. I asked them not to contact my parents any more, and they haven't since. Knowing now that contacting friends or family about your debt is a violation of the FDCPA, do you think it's plausible to use that against them? If so, how? Or did that go out the window when I started making payments?"

GoochBag fucked around with this message at 03:32 on Mar 26, 2010

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