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Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
In cases with extremely complex evidentiary issues, in addition to expert witnesses the court will sometimes appoint "special masters" as well.

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Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

Baruch Obamawitz posted:

Possibly illegal under federal antitrust as a hypo.

I'd take a look at whether the jurisdiction has support for non-compete agreements being presumptively unconscionable; or at least having a high burden to get past.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

Incredulous Red posted:

It has nothing to do with a non-compete. It's a blackballing.

Monochrome posted:

I have a bit of a strange question involving business/labor law in Massachusetts.

Hypothetical situation: Company A conducts a round of layoffs, the terms of which include a release from a non-compete agreement that the laid off employees signed when they were hired.

At a later date, the CEO of Company A asks the CEO of Company B, a competitor, not to hire any personnel that Company A laid off, the CEO of Company B agrees.

Is this arrangement at all illegal?

It very much has something to do with the non-compete, since CEO A's actions are essentially to enforce the terms of the contract he just released the employees from. If there were some flaw in the release, the validity of the non-compete remains an issue. (And even if there weren't, the existence of the agreement and subsequent release is evidence of intent, which may or may not matter).

Leif. fucked around with this message at 22:37 on Feb 28, 2010

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

Incredulous Red posted:

You're talking about the contract issue, where the CEO is taking an action in contravention to the consideration offered in the contract. Since the poster was released from his non-compete, whether or not it's presumptively unconscionable is irrelevant. But calling up another CEO and saying, "Yo, don't hire my laid off guys," has nothing to do with a non-compete, and it's probably some form of anti-competitive collaboration between the two companies.

This would be correct, but that's not what I'm talking about. I'm specifically pointing out the possibility that because the CEO released the contract, but then took actions in direct opposition to that, there is the possibility that he would argue that the contract was never released in the first place (possibly through some sort of defect in the modifying contract), which would put the validity of the non-compete at issue.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
Which of those is less work and cost: suing the poster and getting an injunction? Or calling up the other guy and saying "Yo, don't hire any of my former employees. Thanks, wanna get coffee?"

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
Were you damaged by those words? In some definable way, not just "they hurt my feelings", i.e. you got fired or something.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
I'm not actually clear on who is where, but --- bolded section.

quote:

Pennsylvania Long-Arm Statute
42 Pa. Consol. Stat. Ann. § 5322
§ 5322. Bases of personal jurisdiction over persons outside this Commonwealth
(a) GENERAL RULE.-- A tribunal of this Commonwealth may exercise personal jurisdiction over a person (or the personal representative of a deceased individual who would be subject to jurisdiction under this subsection if not deceased) who acts directly or by an agent, as to a cause of action or other matter arising from such person:
(1) Transacting any business in this Commonwealth. Without excluding other acts which may constitute transacting business in this Commonwealth, any of the following shall constitute transacting business for the purpose of this paragraph:
(i) The doing by any person in this Commonwealth of a series of similar acts for the purpose of thereby realizing pecuniary benefit or otherwise accomplishing an object.
(ii) The doing of a single act in this Commonwealth for the purpose of thereby realizing pecuniary benefit or otherwise accomplishing an object with the intention of initiating a series of such acts.
(iii) The shipping of merchandise directly or indirectly into or through this Commonwealth.
(iv) The engaging in any business or profession within this Commonwealth, whether or not such business requires license or approval by any government unit of this Commonwealth.
(v) The ownership, use or possession of any real property situate within this Commonwealth.
(2) Contracting to supply services or things in this Commonwealth.
(3) Causing harm or tortious injury by an act or omission in this Commonwealth.
(4) Causing harm or tortious injury in this Commonwealth by an act or omission outside this Commonwealth.

(5) Having an interest in, using, or possessing real property in this Commonwealth.
(6)(i) Contracting to insure any person, property, or risk located
within this Commonwealth at the time of contracting.
(ii) Being a person who controls, or who is a director, officer, employee or agent of a person who controls, an insurance company incorporated in this Commonwealth or an alien insurer domiciled in this Commonwealth.
(iii) Engaging in conduct described in section 504 of the act of May 17, 1921 (P.L. 789, No. 285), known as The Insurance Department Act of 1921.
(7) Accepting election or appointment or exercising powers under the authority of this Commonwealth as a:
(i) Personal representative of a decedent. (ii) Guardian of a minor or incapacitated person. (iii) Trustee or other fiduciary. (iv) Director or officer of a corporation.
(8) Executing any bond of any of the persons specified in paragraph (7).
(9) Making application to any government unit for any certificate, license, permit, registration or similar instrument or authorization or exercising any such instrument or authorization.
(10) Committing any violation within the jurisdiction of this Commonwealth of any statute, home rule charter, local ordinance or resolution, or rule or regulation promulgated thereunder by any government unit or of any order of court or other government unit.
(b) EXERCISE OF FULL CONSTITUTIONAL POWER OVER NONRESIDENTS.-- In addition to the provisions of subsection (a) the jurisdiction of the tribunals of this Commonwealth shall extend to all persons who are not within the scope of section 5301 (relating to persons) to the fullest extent allowed under the Constitution of the United States and may be based on the most minimum contact with this Commonwealth allowed under the Constitution of the United States.
(c) SCOPE OF JURISDICTION.-- When jurisdiction over a person is based solely upon this section, only a cause of action or other matter arising from acts enumerated in subsection (a), or from acts forming the basis of jurisdiction under subsection (b), may be asserted against him.
(d) SERVICE OUTSIDE THIS COMMONWEALTH.-- When the exercise of personal jurisdiction is authorized by this section, service of process may be made outside this
Commonwealth.
(e) INCONVENIENT FORUM.-- When a tribunal finds that in the interest of substantial justice the matter should be heard in another forum, the tribunal may stay or dismiss the matter in whole or in part on any conditions that may be just.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
It's not entirely clear also why you'd want to sue in PA instead of LA, and you haven't mentioned nearly enough facts to determine whether the elements for libel could be pled.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

MissConduct posted:

I was libeled in print. The party in question sent a hard copy letter to my employer who then forwarded it to me.
The person who wrote the letter signed their name in ink at the bottom.

The letter states several outright lies about me in which they call me - amongst other things - a criminal and they attempt to harm me within my profession.
I learned that the state of Louisiana recognizes something called "Defamation Per Se" which means:

The four (4) categories of slander that are actionable per se are
(i) accusing someone of a crime;
(ii) alleging that someone has a foul or loathsome disease;
(iii) adversely reflecting on a person’s fitness to conduct their business or trade;
(iv) imputing serious sexual misconduct.

The plaintiff need only prove that someone had published the statement to any third party. No proof of special damages is required.

I have contacted an attorney and I am in the process of filing in state civil court.

Well it's good that you're talking to an attorney, because a brief look at LA case law suggests that defamation per se in that state only carries a presumption of falsity and malice; not a presumption of damages. I hope you're not filing on your own.

-e- Also, not that it is anything more than persuasive, but the Restatement (Second) of Torts (§571 if anyone is bored) strongly suggests that there are limitations based on the kinds of crimes accused - i.e. was it a crime of moral turpitude, was it a crime in that jurisdiction or others, was it an indictable offense, was it a felony, is the crime punishable by imprisonment in the first instance, etc. These are factors in many states (not necessarily LA) as to whether an accusation of a crime can constitute defamation per se.

I'm not saying either way. I'm saying you should let your attorney handle it.

Leif. fucked around with this message at 10:45 on Mar 5, 2010

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

BigRedCat posted:

In October of 08 I was involved in a car accident in Virginia. My girlfriend and I were rear ended and pushed into the car in front of us. She was driving and I was a passenger. We were in a minivan and got hit by a f-350 hauling a horse sized trailer, and the impact was hard enough to total the minvan. The police determined the other driver was 100% at fault, and he was issued a ticket for failure to control his vehicle. It happened less than a mile from a hospital so, we were driven to the hospital rather than waiting for an ambulance. They did x-rays and said I had whiplash and spinal straightening. I ended up taking Percocet for a couple days, and missed a day of work.

After the accident I spoke with an agent from the other insurance company several times, but didn't close my case with them. I never really had the time to deal with it, so I just kept telling them I wanted to leave my case open. Several months ago I got a letter saying they were closing my case, but it could be reopened at any time up until 2 years from the date of the accident(so October 10).

Last week I developed some minor neck pain, which turned into major neck pain over the weekend. I ended up going to the chiropractor yesterday, and after taking x-rays his diagnosis was moderate-major undiagnosed trauma in my neck. He stated in his medical opinion this was caused by the car accident.

I know technically it isn't too late to do anything about this, but realistically have I waited too long? Is it worth consulting a lawyer?

Was your chiropracter also an orthopedic surgeon? If not, his opinion is meaningless.

Go find a personal injury attorney. For this kind of case, most will work on a contingency fee basis, and assuming all the logistics on your case are still good, you should expect to have your medical care covered (you'll at a minimum get an IME -- independent medical evaluation -- from a real doctor, not a chiro. Your treatment may also include seeing a chiro, but generally they are worthless).

-e- important questions to ask: what doctor would you be seeing? does the attorney have any business/dedicated referral relationships with the doctor? Does the doctor also own a surgicenter/MRI center/physical therapy and pain management center? These are things to look out for, you don't want to be sent to a doctor mill that is just going to funnel money up the vertical slice to the attorney.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
Outcome three: Gas guy says your stove is in Wisconsin, you are sentenced to death.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
TotalBiscuit, basically what everyone else said, but I also should point out that there's no perjury there. He took advantage of the same DMCA that you did. The system is intentionally designed to put you in the situation you are in: If the litigation was important, you can file suit; otherwise, you let it go and don't clog up the judicial system with pointless litigation.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

Alaemon posted:

As a matter of federal law, police checkpoints are generally constitutional. Individual states are free to outlaw them, though -- Michigan has (which is interesting, because it was a Michigan case that established their constitutionality).

D.C. has challenged them and I believe found them illegal, though the Metro PD does them anyway. It was a big scandal last year because they basically said gently caress you, and someone got fired over it.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
Depending on how he operates his site and whether he's a publisher or not, he may be shielded from liability anyway under 230 CDA.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

Surly posted:

Huh, I wasn't aware of this statute. Good to know.

Just know that it is limited, it is not a blanket immunity, and you need to be sure that it applies to you first, before you act under the assumption that you have that protection.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

Nautatrol Rx posted:

Well, this judge is kind of a celebrity as well because she spends a lot of her time going around to schools doing drug courts and local tv coverage. She's doing the Judge Judy kind of act.

I'm assuming she has some sort of sway on having me brought up on false charges or some other such nonsense if I were discovered to have assisted the client.

On one hand, there's money and the potential to cause good changes in the court system. On the other is safety. I sense that the overwhelming advice is to err on the side of caution, so I suppose I should do more investigation before I agree to anything.

You should talk to the guys who run JAABlog.

They've been doing that poo poo for years and just now are having to deal with repercussions (bar complaint that probably will go nowhere I think, haven't been following that closely).

Granted, they're Florida not Cali, but there's a lot of connections between Broward and SoCal trial attorneys. You might find a resource there.

Also it's a great read.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

mastershakeman posted:

Yeah, the person with the strongest claim wouldve been my mom. For damages thoug, that's my question-do you need actual ones like therapist sessions? Seems like you wouldn't but I don't know that area at all.

Your mom is the only one with a claim; most states if not all have a "presence" requirement to the outrageous conduct element. Some even require that the injured party has physically seen the outrageous conduct (as opposed to merely hearing it); others only require that the party make a sensory perception contemporaneously with the action.

Her claim is also not as strong as you think. A crank call like that won't necessary meet the outrageous conduct standard.


-e- And on a related note, while doing some research entirely unrelated to this: an instance where a ship's crew member commented within the hearing of a passenger's wife that the passenger was probably dead and that his body would be sucked under the ship and chopped up by the propellers was found not to be "outrageous conduct" and therefore did not meet the requirements for IIED. Wallis v. Princess Cruises, Inc., 306 F.3d 827 (9th Cir. 2002).

quote:

During this time, the ship was traveling towards Athens. No one saw Mr. Wallis fall overboard. By the time the Grand Princess docked in Athens, it was apparent that Mr. Wallis was missing from the ship...Plaintiff asserts that during this time, "Commodore Moulin [the ship's master] subjected [her] to remarks that her husband had fallen overboard; that he died in his fall from the ship; that his body would be sucked under the ship, chopped up by the propellers and probably would not be recovered." Later that afternoon, Commodore Moulin informed plaintiff that the Grand Princess was set to leave port at 5:30 p.m., and that she had a choice of disembarking or continuing with the cruise. Plaintiff chose to disembark and stay in Athens.

On July 16, 1999, Mr. Wallis' body washed ashore near Lavrio, Greece. The body was severely decomposed, but nothing in the record indicates that the body had been cut by propellers. Since Mr. Wallis' death, plaintiff has been diagnosed with depression and post-traumatic stress disorder. Plaintiff claims that she has recurring images of her husband being pulled under the ship and into its propellers....

...We believe the district court was correct when it found that the above conduct was not "extreme and outrageous."...

The standard for intentional infliction of emotional distress under § 46 of the Restatement is extremely difficult to meet and has not been met here. See, e.g., York, 863 F.Supp. 159 (ship's failure to notify authorities of cruise passenger's rape claim, ship's misrepresentation of examining doctor, and ship's misrepresentation of applicable law not found to be outrageous); Visconti v. Consol. Rail Corp., 801 F.Supp. 1200 (S.D.N.Y.1992) (plaintiff's allegations of 54 separate incidents of harassment and abuse—including harassment and belligerence by her managers; fabrications of work rule violations and insubordination; false charges of reproduction and removal of confidential documents; laughter and humiliation in front of coworkers; and obscene language and phone calls—failed to constitute "outrageous behavior"). We therefore hold that the district court properly granted Princess' motion for summary judgment on this claim.

Also, Admiralty law :3:

Leif. fucked around with this message at 01:11 on May 6, 2010

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

Offrampmotel posted:

The point I was trying to make is that the police cannot pull you over on a whim. If he has reasonable suspicion to stop you, then he is justified in detaining you, unless a lot has changed since I left law enforcement, which I doubt.

I didn't do super great in Crim Pro, but I think the point that they're making is that he is only justified in detaining you as long as the reasonable suspicion continues to last. Once that suspicion has abated, the detention is no longer justified.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

ATwoSlotToaster posted:

I think this is frivolous but I am still curious to know the answer:

I'm in a musical group and we had to let two members go for creative differences. One of them was the singer and he had written most of our lyrics. We would like to keep using the lyrics and he doesn't want us to. Are we allowed to or not?

I think that every member of the band contributed their talent and material to the band thus making it the band's property. If I left the group, the new drummer would be allowed to play my exact drum parts (provided he was able) so I feel like it's the same idea vocally.

It depends on the circumstances whether the lyrics were a work made for hire or a joint venture between the authors.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

ATwoSlotToaster posted:

It was definitely a joint effort.

Thanks guys!

Not necessarily. There are factors that determine whether this is the case that aren't always easy to figure out. And even then, depending on the makeup of the band, it may not end the inquiry there.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
Apartment leases are examples of how everything you learned about contracts of adhesion in law school is bullshit. Nothing about an apartment lease from a big leasing company will favor you. You will still lose if you sue over it.

My last lease even has a clause saying that you waive any claim of unconscionability in the contract.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

Stormtrooper posted:

I have a question about copyright. Why are pictures/scans of medieval manuscripts copyrighted? (Example) Surely the original work is in the public domain, and as I understand it, you can't copyright a photo/scan of a public domain work if its intentionally a close duplicate. This is based on my understanding of American law, and most of these manuscripts are in Europe (the example I linked is in the UK). Do copyright laws differ so much that its possible to copyright such images?

Yes.

In the U.S., a case called Bridgeman v. Corel controls this, stating that a photographic reproduction of a two-dimensional work does not gain independent copyright status, because it lacks originality. It's a district court case, but generally and widely considered to be the law nationwide. This means that if the original work is in the public domain, a photograph of it is likewise in the public domain.

The U.K., however, takes the opposite view. They hold photographic reproductions of 2D works to have independent copyright. This means that even if the original work is in the public domain, taking a photograph of it is a new creative act, eligible for a new copyright.

The difference comes from whether the jurisdiction applies the "sweat of the brow" doctrine for copyright. The U.S. does not -- the U.K. does. Any other jurisdiction that applies "sweat of the brow" is likely to similarly follow the U.K.'s lead on this.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

Stormtrooper posted:

Thanks, this is exactly what I needed to know! I guess I have a sort of follow up question - being in the US, must I respect the UK copyright law with regard to these works (medieval manuscripts)? I know usually people in one country don't have to follow the laws in another, but I guess some of the international copyright agreements might negate this.

Generally no, but it depends on what you are wanting to do with the work, and where you want to do it.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

Suppin posted:

Can I put a screenshot of Sprint's order page on my website to make a comment about it?

Specifically the order page and then this pop up: http://shop.sprint.com/en/stores/popups/premium_data_popup.shtml

It has a copyright logo on it and I'm not sure if I can post that and make a commentary about it.

Thanks

Though fair use is never a 100% one-and-done kind of thing, you are probably on the OK side of it here. I'm assuming your website is a blog though, or some other informative, rather than commercial entity. If you are doing it for commercial purposes, however, you may be less safe.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
I don't see why they couldn't if your lease expressly agrees to the fines as penalties for violation of its provisions.

-e- but regardless, you have to have agreed to the penalty somewhere, perhaps in some sort of document you initialed. Doesn't sound like you did that. Take it to small claims court, and start looking for a new place.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
Basically, in practical terms you want to substitute "Is he capable at any point of being semi-lucid" for "is he of sound mind". It's much closer to the actual question at hand.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

Javid posted:

Could the use of antipsychotics be used to prove a preexisting mental issue? They'd have to prove the drugs themselves actually weren't working effectively, changing the issue from the drugs to the condition requiring their use.

(ianal, just makes some sort of halfassed sense)

Not certain, as they could be prescribed offlabel for another condition. Also depending on the type of claim you are alleging, they might be barred from admissibility under the subsequent remedial measures rule.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

daveincognito posted:

I've posted about my problem in a much earlier stage in a previous thread, but here I am now with another question.

First, I'm in Ohio. The case was going to be handled by the state's Personnel Board of Review. Shortly before the hearing, my lawyer told me that my situation was pretty bad, and that I should take a settlement offered by the opposing side. After about a day or two's thought (I didn't have much time to decide), I decided he was right and that we'd take the settlement. The hearing got pushed back again so there'd be time for a settlement, the opposing attorney drafted a couple of contracts, and my lawyer sent them along to me.

Here's where things stand now: I signed my copy and delivered it to my lawyer. It has been almost a month, and the opposition has not done the same. I'm beginning to wonder if this was just a stall tactic by the opposition (not necessarily the lawyer, but the people I'm actually bringing the suit against). My lawyer still seems to think they're acting on good faith, but I've gotten paranoid -- it doesn't take this long to get signatures from people who've allegedly already agreed to the text of the settlement.

Is it too late to rescind my signature on the contract if the opposition has failed to sign after nearly a month?

Let me just point out that it's not necessarily an unreasonably long time.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

joat mon posted:

It's unlikely she is or you were an independent contractor. Biggest giveaway: an independent contractor doesn't have a 'boss.'

Often not the case in copyright. Just saying.

It's a balancing test, and not always clear, but the factors involve things like "Do you work regular hours, do you report to a supervisor with hiring/firing authority, do you have an employee manual, do you pay taxes, are you eligible for benefits, do you report your hours, do you supply your own tools, is there someone with right to control your work, etc."

IIRC the supreme court has given guidance that the taxes and benefits eligibility are the most important factors with others (hiring/firing authority, employee manual) having greater weight than others, but none are presumptive.

The case involving the factors, CCNV v. Reid, is a good place to start -- even though it's a copyright/work-for-hire case, it's a clear distinction of the factors used in determining an employer/employee relationship.

Leif. fucked around with this message at 18:32 on Jun 12, 2010

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
Before you do that, though, realize that you are not going to be successful attacking a servicemember for how they spend their BAH. It's not going to happen.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

MalConstant posted:

If I have someone's SSN, how can I locate where they live at so I can file a small claims suit?

Backstory: I lived in a house with 2 other guys. I and the other roommate left 6 mo. into the lease because this guy was slob and a total rear end in a top hat. We never notified to Realtor (stupid, i know,) so towards the end of the lease the remaining person in the place trashed the house and missed 2 mo. worth of rent. I was sent a collections letter saying I'm responsible for $2,700 in damages. So the way I see it, Yes, my name is on the lease, but I wasn't living at the place nor did I cause the damage. I haven't seen a lawyer, but If can I take this guy to court and prove I didn't cause any of these damages and I wasn't present during the last 6 mo. of the lease, I should be able to get the debt wiped clean off my record? I might even get lucky and the guy wouldn't show to court. He doesn't seem to give a gently caress.

If the lease is like most other leases, you are all jointly and severally liable for the entire remaining balance on the lease plus damages. This means the lessor can collect the entire amount from any of you. You still could sue the other guys to get reimbursed for paying their share, but regardless of whether you cause any of the damages, you probably violated the lease agreement, and that's all that matters.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

Femur posted:

So I hired a contractor to install a sprinkler system. They installed it, but forgot to apply glue to a certain part, and so the thing bursts and destroys my ceiling. The Fire Marshall said the lack of glue on that part was the problem, and I have the part that wasn't installed correctly. So I have to replace the carpet, and rebuild the ceiling and a wall that was damaged due to this. The contractor's insurance, whom I have been dealing with, will only agree to pay me $500. The cost of repairs is closer to $20,000. They say this is because the contract I signed includes the two clause:


Am I screwed? It seems completely ridiculous that these two clauses lets them do whatever they want, without responsibility? I've contacted a lawyer to discuss my options, but I wanted some other opinions before my lawyer responds.

It's jurisdiction dependent. In some places, you can waive a negligence claim; others you cannot waive a gross negligence claim, but mere negligence you can. Negligence may not be the only way of getting the money back though, depending on the text of the contract. Your lawyer would know better.

-e-


^^^^^ What Solomon Grundy said about your insurance works too though, and probably saves you attorneys fees.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
Why would he have better luck in a thread about how to beat debt collection (where most answers seem to be by a non-lawyer), when the question is about what he should do in response to a court summons in the legal questions megathread (where we have consumer rights lawyers)?

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
The simple question has a very simple answer.

Tell the truth.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
Please don't give advice to people in this thread when you don't have any idea what you're talking about? Thanks.

PoOKiE! posted:

If it's the same judge from the arraignment then I'm sure something comical will happen regardless but I'm tempted to do that since most of my friends are serious drivers as well and participate in autocross events, etc. My best friend actually works on race cars and associates with a few fairly famous drivers in his free time. Since he's a designer/engineer, he would be able to attest to how well I maintain and upgrade my cars and the caution I constantly have towards driving.


Yeah I was coerced to believe that lie about traffic school too... The shocker is that unless the ticket is dismissed and tossed, it will stay on your record. They trick people by saying it won't go on your public record or affect insurance, but the police will still see all the tickets you've accumulated over the years.

In Illinois at least, traffic tickets for normal things like speeding are civil issues, not criminal. Civil infractions always go on the internal abstract when they are decided and unlike a lot of criminal tickets, they don't have an expungement act so they are there for good.

1) They MAY just dismiss the no insurance ticket since they would see you have it in your hand because they know that the judge will once you go to court, especially considering the weird mix-up on the cops part.
2) They can change the nature of the charge entirely before going to court if they really wanted. They shouldn't charge you with anything that they know would just get dismissed though, so I think you're fine and should focus on why the red light ticket may or may not be bogus because then you won't have any tickets permanently attached to you if you actually beat it.
3) Yes.

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

PoOKiE! posted:

I have real world experience in Illinois doing the exact same thing Chuu posted,

This isn't the "how to be a criminal" thread. This isn't also the "Police are evil people thread" like you seem to want it to be. This is the "legal questions" thread where people seek legal advice from people with some basis for having legal expertise, i.e. lawyers.

You however, came into this thread and immediately rejected everything you were told, insisting that no matter what you were right and the police were idiots, despite the chorus of people who know a lot more about these sorts of things than you saying otherwise.

So no, you really have no basis to be advising anyone about anything here.

quote:

What experience do you have on the matter?

I haven't actually claimed any expertise in Illinois criminal law. I did, however graduate from law school, which makes me generally qualified to point out how much of an idiot you've been in this thread.

Then again, unlike you I haven't had to make posts like this:

quote:

Recently I've been wondering what the basic rules of thumb are for a civil case in most places.

or

quote:

I realize people might see this as whiny or not taking blame, but I assure you I have heard all the criticisms and doubt from family, friends, coworkers, etc, when I was deep into my first court case in Dec09. Please try to assume I am not a poo poo-head please.

That took 2 posts into your post history; I didn't even have to go post by post and point out where you've given people lovely legal advice.

Get the gently caress out, leave it to people with a semblance of what they're talking about.

-e- And lol at you talking about how that offense can't qualify for expungement, when the section of statute you quoted specifically outlines several exceptions to the rule for how it CAN qualify for expungement.

Leif. fucked around with this message at 02:35 on Jul 11, 2010

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

PoOKiE! posted:

Correct.

No, not correct.

A disposition of traffic school supervision is NOT the same thing as offense not entered. The former will show up when you get a full driving record report done, which some jobs require you to do. The latter will not. This is why you shouldn't be posting here.

Leif. fucked around with this message at 16:02 on Jul 11, 2010

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
You need to be careful and find out your local court (I'm assuming Cook County Circuit Court) rules on directed verdicts. In some jurisdictions there are very specific timing rules on when you can file them (or restrictions on what you can do before filing one), and in some jurisdictions, if you miss the opportunity, it's waived.

Let me also point out you're not going to win on one either. The standard for a directed verdict in Illinois is as follows:

A directed verdict is properly entered when all of the evidence, viewed in the light most favorable to the opponent, so overwhelmingly favors the movant that no contrary verdict based on that evidence could stand. Pedrick v. Peoria & Eastern R.R. Co., 37 Ill. 2d 494, 510, 229 N.E.2d 504 (1967). The court has "no right" to enter a directed verdict if there is any evidence demonstrating a substantial factual dispute or where the assessment of the credibility of the witnesses or the determination regarding conflicting evidence is decisive to the outcome. Maple v. Gustafson, 151 Ill. 2d 445, 453-54, 177 Ill. Dec. 438, 603 N.E.2d 508 (1992).

That standard is incredibly difficult for you to meet, and it almost never happens.

Not saying you shouldn't file the motion, you should always file the motion, just saying you shouldn't waste your time expecting to win on that.

-e- Also that witness testimony you're talking about presenting, if I'm understanding who is who correctly, is going to be inadmissible.

But w/e we're not your attorneys, this is not advice for you to take, this is to point out that there might be a reason that your attorneys are ignoring certain routes because they simply aren't as fruitful or even possible as you think.

Leif. fucked around with this message at 05:23 on Jul 12, 2010

Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester

JudicialRestraints posted:

He's actually right here though. There needs to be a reason other than 'crime control' for random stops and making a seizure in a bad neighborhood needs to be based upon something other than 'just doesn't fit in' (at least I think, my professor didn't really give us a case cite when he said it).

He's also right about the part where the judge would uphold it anyway. 'driving erratically' followed by 'acting nervous' is all you need.

Making a seizure in a bad neighborhood needs probable cause, but making a terry stop, however, doesn't (no matter what neighborhood - in fact, easier in a bad neighborhood to get mere suspicion). And if there's a valid pretext from a minor traffic violation, that's OK too.

Also don't conflate crime control checkpoints (generally not OK), with orders to heavily patrol a specific area and pull over even for the most minimal violations or suspicions (much closer to OK).

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Leif.
Mar 27, 2005

Son of the Defender
Formerly Diplomaticus/SWATJester
It's not dispositive in of itself, but it counts towards reasonable suspicion.

Plus, there's all sorts of things the OP couldn't have known. Was a crime reported with a similar vehicle? Have there been a rash of drug deals in the area with nice cars, where they aren't normally? Did he have out of state (this is canada right? Province?) plates and the cop knew that most deals in this area are normally conducted in cars with out of state plates? etc.

There's no way the OP can know these things at the time of the stop (or maybe even ever), but they factor into a reasonable suspicion/probable cause analysis.

-e- also, IIRC the checkpoint thing just got relitigated in DC recently, so I don't know that the issue is entirely settled.

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