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space pope
Apr 5, 2003

Railtus posted:

All of the above.

France I know less about. I have heard that Parisian French only became the dominant language in the rest of France much later, and there are references to the Flemish, Burgundians & Normans as a distinct group. However, there also appeared to be something more of a shared Frankish identity as well.


Some scholars have argued that French did not become the national language until after WWI and that a lot of regional dialects like Occitan persisted until then. Although semi-fictional The Life of Simple Man shows that in many areas there was little if any sense of being "French."
http://www.amazon.com/Life-Simple-Man-Emile-Guillaumin/dp/0874512468

Heck, Breton was very prevalent until after WWI.

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space pope
Apr 5, 2003

Alpacalips Now posted:

All the food chat has been very helpful. Thanks, guys!

What were legal trials like in medieval Europe? How common were trials of ordeal compared to trials modern people would be more familiar with? Were there a lot of "out-of-court" settlements?

You might be interested in the Consumption of Justice by Daniel Smail.
http://www.amazon.com/The-Consumpti...tion+of+justice

It's been a couple years since I read it but it was a pretty interesting book. He looks at court cases in Marseille between 1264-1423. I don't think he talked about ordeals much (if at all?) but it struck me that he said most cases never reached a final judgement. He talked about how court cases were really just a way for different feuding parties to annoy and harass each other. If all you want to do is haul your arch-rival before the judge and accuse her of being a whore or him of being a knave then you really don't care whether or not there's ever a decision. I wouldn't really call this an out of court settlement. Of course, the book only looks at one city, so I can't really say whether or not this pattern was representative.

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