|
JnnyThndrs posted:I'm only an amateur historian, but my recollection is that both Germany and Japan had elements of democracy before WWII - the Weimar Republic was a parliamentary democracy and Japan also had an elected body of representatives - in practice the Emperor was not an absolute ruler. On the Japan side of things, Japan had tried to create a democracy during the beginning of the Showa Era (WWI, a bit after WWI), but militarism and nationalism became dominant, giving the emperor/military shogunate control over almost all of the government. Military control coincided with Japan's annexation over most of Asia, before WWII.
|
#
¿
Apr 18, 2015 15:26
|
|
|
|
| # ¿ May 12, 2024 05:13 |
|
|
Pharnakes posted:I would say that war exhaustion played a pretty big part in it too. Both nations had just suffered on the hard end of the largest war ever and nobody was in much mood for an insurgency. In Japan there was maybe more of a chance of resisting occupation, but after the war the US would not have tolerated any poo poo what so ever, and I'm sure that was made very clear. Plus they had just been nuked twice, which would settle anyone down I should think. I think there probably wasn't really a major resistance to occupation. The war was already incredibly unpopular among many Japanese families before it ended. Recall that before the atom bombs were dropped, the United States executed many air raids across different major cities, including Tokyo, Nagoya, Kawasaki, and Okinawa. Many families were destroyed because the husband would be drafted into the military and die in on combat.
|
|
#
¿
Apr 19, 2015 04:13
|
|