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botany
Apr 27, 2013

by Lowtax

Phyzzle posted:

In academia, they attempted to prove it with an experiment involving equally qualified male and female applicants in STEM fields:

http://www.educationnews.org/higher-education/study-women-favored-for-stem-tenure-track-jobs/

"Contrary to prevailing assumptions, men and women faculty members [hiring decision-makers] from all four fields preferred female applicants 2:1 over identically qualified males with matching lifestyles (single, married, divorced)"

So, they ended up proving the opposite. . .

I'd be careful with what that study actually shows. The researchers didn't evaluate actual hiring practices, they set up a hypothetical situation with made-up applicants. STEM fields still have a massive underrepresentation of women, and they are constantly getting poo poo for it. It's not a stretch to assume that when the institutes were asked to participate in a study on hiring preferences, they knew what this was about and accordingly overcorrected. (The value of 4:1 female over male applicants given as the extreme in the study seems like a probable case of overcorrection to me.) There's also the problem of course that the amount of female applicants to STEM tenure track positions is so comparatively small due to how the undergrad and grad studies are structured that exclusively looking at (fictional) tenure track applicants is tenuous anyway.

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botany
Apr 27, 2013

by Lowtax

TROIKA CURES GREEK posted:

Yes OP, after statistical controls are performed the gap disappears. Problem is there are lots of poorly designed studies that fail to do this which is why you still hear about it.
That's actually not true at all.


quote:

Oh and women are on average much worse at salary negotiations
Why do you think that is?

botany
Apr 27, 2013

by Lowtax

lol

"It's complicated, here's a couple thousand words that boil down to (a) the gendergap exists and (b) it's because of discrimination, but because nobody is willing to come out and say they hate women, we'll talk to some Harvard economists for 45 minutes."

botany
Apr 27, 2013

by Lowtax

Jarmak posted:

You've got the cause and effect backwards here I think, historically a job has been considered "for women" because of it's low value, not the other way around.

That's not true (or at least not in all cases): when the industrial revolution came around and factory work became the standard way of earning a living, female factory workers were typically paid just under half of what the male factory workers were paid. These were new jobs that didn't exist before the creation of manufactories, and both male and female workers were employed in the same jobs, especially in the creation of wool and cotton goods, and shoe-making, as well as packaging in several industries. In all of those cases the average wage for a female worker is often less than half of that for male workers.

botany
Apr 27, 2013

by Lowtax

Jarmak posted:

I'm not sure what that has to do with what I said

edit: it's also just wrong, women generally worked different factory jobs then men, specifically they came into the factory workforce en mass with the invention of the power loom because the child labor that were the chief workers of that industry weren't tall enough to operate it.

When manufacturing created new jobs, especially in the textile industry, men and women both worked those jobs. Women were paid less. Weavers are one of the few factory jobs that was almost exclusively done by women, most other factory jobs, even in the textile industry, employed male and female workers. Even more important for your argument is that non-farm menial labor and daylabor was almost exclusively a male job, and it payed even less than the textile work. If low value was the reason a job was considered "for women", (a) non-farm labor would have been considered a female occupation and (b) new jobs that were done by men and women would presumably have paid out equally. Instead women just get paid less, whatever their job, and regardless of whether the job is seen as stereotypically male or female.

botany
Apr 27, 2013

by Lowtax

Claverjoe posted:

Do you really think that in a country of 300 million people, there is not enough employers who wouldn't have the intelligence to exploit that particular gap if it was there?

I mean, while I'm no fan of the rich and wealthy, I'd feel dishonest if a starting assumption was "all employers and hiring managers are mouth-breathing idiots".

The fact that one group of workers is cheaper than another is in many industries not a gap waiting to be exploited but rather understood as a sign that the cheaper group of workers is worse. It's at least in part a self-fulfilling prophecy: Women are probably not very good at this job, therefore we should pay them less. We pay them less, therefore they're probably worth less. They're worth less, therefore they're probably not very good at this job. Evidence for any step of the argument comes in the form of the observation "most people working this job are male, therefore males are probably better suited to this job." It's not that these people are mouth-breathing idiots, the argument isn't even implausible on its face, it just happens to be wrong.

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botany
Apr 27, 2013

by Lowtax

McDowell posted:

Your manager could be in your poo poo - other employees might freak out - you get odd / fewer shifts, etc.

Basically anything they can to punish you for talking turkey and possibly organizing short of the legal thresholds of retribution.

pretty sure that post was a boring throwaway comment about your use of the word "literally"

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