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I have a very old cookie recipe that my mom made a lot when I was little. It has 1/2 teaspoon baking soda and 1/2 teaspoon cream of tartar. I can probably just use 1 teaspoon double-action baking powder instead, right? There's no other obvious source of acid/base I can see. Just sugar, flour ,egg, salt, fat, vanilla. Based strictly on normal substitutions for baking powder as 2:1 tartar and soda, it's almost like 1/2 teaspoon cream of tartar and 1/4 teaspoon of the baking soda would become 3/4 teaspoon baking powder, plus 1/4 teaspoon baking soda still remaining? Or is that excessively pedantic. Since the cookies have no brown sugar only white, I can't imagine what the extra baking soda is supposed to be reacting with. Rescue Toaster fucked around with this message at 22:57 on Sep 24, 2023 |
# ¿ Sep 24, 2023 22:15 |
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# ¿ May 13, 2024 21:46 |
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Base Emitter posted:Acid as a source of flavor is also a thing, and in particular cream of tartar in snickerdoodles is kind of a classic. I would go find some cream of tartar if I were trying to reproduce mom's cookies. You can get a decent sugar cookie without it, but it probably won't taste the same. I'm totally open to that, it's not like a thing of cream of tartar is expensive, I just figured the recipe might use the combo instead of baking powder. But if the cream of tartar was supposed to have remaining acid flavor, wouldn't you need less baking soda? If I'm understanding the proportions right, 2:1 tartar:soda is balanced, so even quantities would totally neutralize all the acid, no?
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# ¿ Sep 26, 2023 03:06 |