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I have no training in genetics whatsoever but I was surprised to see that wikipedia of Lyme Disease states that "The 2010 autopsy of Ötzi the Iceman, a 5,300-year-old mummy, revealed the presence of the DNA sequence of Borrelia burgdorferi making him the earliest known human with Lyme disease," when one of the articles detailing this supposed evidence (https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/22426219/) states that "[s]equences corresponding to ~60% of the genome of Borrelia burgdorferi are indicative of the earliest human case of infection with the pathogen for Lyme borreliosis." Does 60% of a genome really mean that it is certain that this bacteria was present (at least in the form that is the cause of Lyme Disease)?
Lenny Nero has issued a correction as of 05:58 on Apr 8, 2024 |
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Apr 8, 2024 05:43
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| # ¿ May 17, 2024 19:37 |
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