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Phanatic
Mar 13, 2007

Please don't forget that I am an extremely racist idiot who also has terrible opinions about the Culture series.

Fangz posted:

The idea that productivity *decreased* during WWII in the US is insane to me.

Why?

Consider unemployment. At first glance, WWII saw pretty much full employment in the US. That's a good thing, right? Well, the problem is it was full employment because a whole lot of people were taken out of the civilian economy where they could have produced useful things and shoveled into a furnace where hundreds of thousands of them were killed and injured. So clearly you can't look at employment during WWII and consider it the same thing as employment during peacetime.

Same thing with GNP. What are you actually measuring with that? Are you treating the production of hundreds of iron bombs that are dropped on a factory with some tiny percentage of them actually hitting the target and the rest of them making holes in the ground as productivity that's the same thing as making a car?


Simon Kutznets, who basically created the GNP measurement, did a lot of work on this and it's not a clear-cut thing:

http://www.independent.org/newsroom/article.asp?id=138

quote:

By contrast, Simon Kuznets, a pioneer in national income accounting, expressed many concerns. In National Product in Wartime Kuznets noted that national income accountants must make definite assumptions about “the purpose, value, and scope of economic activity.” He observed that “a major war magnifies these conceptual difficulties, raising questions concerning the ends economic activity is made to pursue; and “the distinction between intermediate and final products.” Moreover, “war and peace type products . . . cannot be added into a national product total until the differences in the valuation due to differences in the institutional mechanisms that determine their respective market prices are corrected for.”

...

During the war Kuznets constructed several alternative series, one of which appears in Table 2, column 4. Its values for 1942 and 1943 are substantially lower than those in columns 1, 2, and 3, in part because Kuznets used preliminary nominal data as well as different deflators for expenditure on munitions.[11]

After the war Kuznets refined his estimates, producing a series (Table 2, column 5) that differs substantially from the standard series “partly because of the allowance for overpricing of certain types of war production, partly because of the exclusion of nondurable war output (essentially pay and subsistence of armed forces).” Contrasting his estimate and that of the Commerce Department, he found the latter “difficult to accept” because it made too little correction for actual inflation during the war years and did not deal satisfactorily with the decline in the relative prices of munitions during the war.[12] Kuznets’s refined estimates follow a completely different profile for the 1940s. Most notable is that whereas the Commerce Department’s latest estimate of real GNP drops precipitously in 1946 and remains at that low level for the rest of the decade, Kuznets’s estimate increases in 1946 by about 8 percent, then rises slightly higher during the next three years.

Kuznets might have made an even greater adjustment, deleting all war outlays. Although computing GNP in this way now seems highly unorthodox, a strong argument can be offered for it, and Kuznets considered it seriously.[13] The crucial question: does war spending purchase a final good and hence belong in GNP, or an intermediate good and hence not belong?

Then there's the underlying issue is that price information goes out the window, so how do you estimate GDP in the first place?

quote:

Finally, one can make an even more unorthodox—which is not to say incorrect—argument for rejecting the conventional wisdom. One can simply argue that outside a more or less competitive equilibrium framework, the use of prices as weights in an aggregation of physical quantities loses its essential theoretical justification. All presumption that price equals marginal cost vanishes, and therefore no meaningful estimate of real national product is possible.[22]

In fact, price was “never a factor” in the allocation of resources for war purposes. The authorities did not permit “the price-cost relationship . . . to determine either the level of output or the distribution of the final product to individual uses.”[23] Clearly, all presumption of equalities between prevailing prices, consumers’ marginal rates of substitution, and producers’ marginal rates of technical substitution vanished. Absent those equalities, at least as approximations, national income accounting loses its moorings; it necessarily becomes more or less arbitrary.

Some economists appreciated the perils at the time. Noting that the government had displaced the price system, Wesley Mitchell observed that comparisons of the war and prewar economies, even comparisons between successive years, had become “highly dubious.” Index number problems lurked around every corner. Much output during the war, especially the weapons, consisted of goods that did not exist before the war. Even for physically comparable goods, price structures and output mixes changed radically. Production of many important consumer goods was outlawed. Surrounding everything were the “obvious uncertainties concerning [price] quotations in a land of price controls and evasions.”[24] Kuznets declared that the “bases of valuation for the war and nonwar sectors of the economy are inherently noncomparable . . . . It is impossible to construct directly a price index of war products that would span both prewar and war years.” Kuznets’s own efforts to overcome these problems never escaped from arbitrariness, as he himself admitted.[25]

...

23. Novick et al., Wartime Production Controls, pp. 16-18. This is not to say that prices played no role; much of the planning had to do with the manipulation of prices. But market-determined prices and costs were never permitted to play a fundamental role. See Miller, Pricing, pp. 97-110.

Phanatic fucked around with this message at 16:10 on Dec 5, 2016

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Fangz
Jul 5, 2007

Oh I see! This must be the Bad Opinion Zone!
That's a lot of words but what it comes down to is defining a special case definition of productivity after the fact specifically to rule out war production. And which generally comes down to specifying one sort of production as being better than another.

Well okay you can do that but again that's goalpost moving - you're really saying 'war didn't boost the production of the stuff I want to boost'. That's not exactly an interesting argument to have, is it? How much relative value do you put on a tank to defeat hitler vs a radio set?

In the second passage you quote, there is support for a productivity decrease, rather it says the entire question is unanswerable.

If you ignore the war period, you see that productivity post war in the US, with the shift back to civilian production, is a lot higher than before, both in total amounts and per capita. So whatever military industry was created during the war could be converted back to civilian use.

Ultimately there's an usual meaning for productivity in the literature and in the US over WWII it increased a lot. I'm not super interested in the semantic argument.

Edit:

quote:

Consider unemployment. At first glance, WWII saw pretty much full employment in the US. That's a good thing, right? Well, the problem is it was full employment because a whole lot of people were taken out of the civilian economy where they could have produced useful things and shoveled into a furnace where hundreds of thousands of them were killed and injured. So clearly you can't look at employment during WWII and consider it the same thing as employment during peacetime.

To clarify, this discussion is going to hinge on what degree you think 'dead Nazis' is in fact a highly useful thing to produce.

Fangz fucked around with this message at 16:48 on Dec 5, 2016

Mr Enderby
Mar 28, 2015

Fangz posted:

Ultimately there's an usual meaning for productivity in the literature and in the US over WWII it increased a lot. I'm not super interested in the semantic argument.

I don't disagree with that.

The point remains that consumer prices and wages rose rapidly in the US over WWII. I suspect that at least part of that was because of the war effort soaking up both labour and production capacity for consumer goods (no tanks in the CPI basket).

Fangz
Jul 5, 2007

Oh I see! This must be the Bad Opinion Zone!

Mr Enderby posted:

I don't disagree with that.

The point remains that consumer prices and wages rose rapidly in the US over WWII. I suspect that at least part of that was because of the war effort soaking up both labour and production capacity for consumer goods (no tanks in the CPI basket).

Then it doesn't make a lot of sense that inflation increased *further* in the post war period as war production was reconverted into civilian production.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Raenir Salazar posted:

From watching the Extra Credits series on the History of Money I think they would've figured out some form of paper currency a lot sooner and switched to it (For the war's duration and then switch back to gold/silver soon after that).

China in the same period may be instructive as they repeatedly come up with a scheme for paper currency, it works great for a little while, then someone overdoes it and the whole thing collapses.

MikeCrotch
Nov 5, 2011

I AM UNJUSTIFIABLY PROUD OF MY SPAGHETTI BOLOGNESE RECIPE

YES, IT IS AN INCREDIBLY SIMPLE DISH

NO, IT IS NOT NORMAL TO USE A PEPPERAMI INSTEAD OF MINCED MEAT

YES, THERE IS TOO MUCH SALT IN MY RECIPE

NO, I WON'T STOP SHARING IT

more like BOLLOCKnese
I thought the idea was that paper currency required a centralised government the likes of which didn't really exist until after the 17th century in Europe? Whereas China had a strong central government and bureaucracy that enabled paper/fiat currency earlier than that.

Raenir Salazar
Nov 5, 2010

College Slice

MikeCrotch posted:

I thought the idea was that paper currency required a centralised government the likes of which didn't really exist until after the 17th century in Europe? Whereas China had a strong central government and bureaucracy that enabled paper/fiat currency earlier than that.

Granted I only have the one source but it seems like in China it was more of a bottom-up thing the government just happen to take advantage of, they had it sorta, but it doesn't to appear to me as being a centralized thing, the big development was a Central Bank to act as a lender of last resort and a bunch of other regulations and "patches" to the system and that took a lot longer.

Cyrano4747
Sep 25, 2006

Yes, I know I'm old, get off my fucking lawn so I can yell at these clouds.

Double post

Cyrano4747 fucked around with this message at 17:11 on Dec 5, 2016

Cyrano4747
Sep 25, 2006

Yes, I know I'm old, get off my fucking lawn so I can yell at these clouds.

Fangz posted:

Then it doesn't make a lot of sense that inflation increased *further* in the post war period as war production was reconverted into civilian production.

You had a butt load of pent up demand and limited supply even once things got in full swing. Lots of wartime savings too plus a fuckload of GIs coming home with military pay. One of my grandfathers bought a gas station with his wartime savings, the other bought a farm and put enough aside in the bank for my father and his three siblings to go to parochial schools.

4 years of combat pay and zero living expenses makes a hell of a nest egg, and multiplied across the whole US military and that's a lot of cash hitting the economy at once.

Hell even dead soldiers contributed. A great aunt of mine was made a widow by the battle of the bulge and bought a house with her husbands life insurance.

Phanatic
Mar 13, 2007

Please don't forget that I am an extremely racist idiot who also has terrible opinions about the Culture series.

Fangz posted:

Then it doesn't make a lot of sense that inflation increased *further* in the post war period as war production was reconverted into civilian production.

You have a whole bunch of pent-up demand (and forced savings because it was pent-up) hitting the economy all at once. More dollars chasing a limited supply of goods = inflation.

Fangz posted:

That's a lot of words but what it comes down to is defining a special case definition of productivity after the fact specifically to rule out war production. And which generally comes down to specifying one sort of production as being better than another.

Well okay you can do that but again that's goalpost moving - you're really saying 'war didn't boost the production of the stuff I want to boost'. That's not exactly an interesting argument to have, is it? How much relative value do you put on a tank to defeat hitler vs a radio set?

It's not goalpost moving, it's a real serious question about what is actually a useful definition of production. GDP only includes final goods, not intermediate goods. At one end of things, the government could have drafted people into the military and put them to work, paying a salary to dig holes in the ground. Would those holes have counted towards your version of productivity?

quote:

To clarify, this discussion is going to hinge on what degree you think 'dead Nazis' is in fact a highly useful thing to produce.

GDP is not a measure of how useful what you produced is. Intermediate goods are enormously useful, you can't produce final goods without them, but they are not included in GDP. If you think a suggestion that American productivity declined during WW2 is insane because you think dead Nazis are highly useful, that's fine, but that's not something that you can quantify with GDP. If it could then every piece of wasteful military spending during the Cold War could be used to say the GDP was enormous on the grounds that "Communists not invading Western Europe" were very useful things to produce.

Phanatic fucked around with this message at 18:30 on Dec 5, 2016

Ensign Expendable
Nov 11, 2008

Lager beer is proof that god loves us
Pillbug

Tias posted:

Out a window.


Correct me if I'm wrong, but didn't some( I want to say British?) tank commander actually ramp over a river or canyon or something?

Ramping BT tanks over rivers was considered a practical alternative to waiting for the engineers to build a bridge. I don't know if this was ever done in wartime though.

xthetenth
Dec 30, 2012

Mario wasn't sure if this Jeb guy was a good influence on Yoshi.

I'm pretty sure I remember that as well as one being a mild steel prototype and jumping it better. I think that was Arnhem.

Jobbo_Fett
Mar 7, 2014

Slava Ukrayini

Clapping Larry
WW2 Data


Today's update is on General Purpose bombs in the British Explosive Ordnance Inventory. What's the difference between bombs under 1000lb and those over it, with regards to their tail units? What color is generally associated with a timed fuzed?


And what the heck does "explodering" mean? Seriously, I have no clue.

Nenonen
Oct 22, 2009
Probation
Can't post for 6 hours!

xthetenth posted:

I'm pretty sure I remember that as well as one being a mild steel prototype and jumping it better. I think that was Arnhem.

It was a Cromwell troop, and the crossing wasn't planned for - according to the account two of the tanks made it across the canal but the third one hit brakes and fell in. I have no idea if the story is true or plausible, it sounds all kinds of fantastic to me, but there you have it. The mild steel bit was about the armour merely bending instead of flaking when hit by German AA guns, yet another bit that sounds a bit doubtful. But veterans never tell tall tales so it must be all 100% true!

feedmegin
Jul 30, 2008

Alchenar posted:

The other thing is that the vast expansion of the US merchant marine fleet occurred as European merchant fleets vanished from the oceans (for obvious reasons), so the US had a period where it had relatively free reign to muscle in on trade routes.

And also, e.g. trade and investment within South America, a lot of which was British in the late 19th century. Defending democracy for the whole duration of two world wars (ok, yes, p arguable for the first one but still) as a nation heavily focussed on manufacturing exports and maritime trade did a serious number on Britain's economy in the end, to American businesses' benefit.

Nebakenezzer
Sep 13, 2005

The Mote in God's Eye

Fangz posted:

Ultimately there's an usual meaning for productivity in the literature and in the US over WWII it increased a lot. I'm not super interested in the semantic argument.

What is your argument, anyway? I don't get what you want to say.

P-Mack posted:

It's an interesting question to consider how the 16th/17th century European economy would have handled the potential deflation without all the gold and silver from the new world. Fewer wars? More? I dunno.

I *think* that's a negatory, good buddy. I hope to understand this a little better once I get back to "A European tragedy", but it seems that even with gold as money being true, the heads of Europe were not constrained by this. Because bankers were actually able to deficit finance the Holy Roman Emperor (etc.) cash was a matter of good credit rather than actually having the money. The real restricting factor was how much more money you were likely to have rolling in the next year or two. I guess if Spain didn't have literal gold mines in the new world, they would be more restricted in their credit - though people who know better than I would have to say if that'd prevent any actual wars.

feedmegin posted:

And also, e.g. trade and investment within South America, a lot of which was British in the late 19th century. Defending democracy for the whole duration of two world wars (ok, yes, p arguable for the first one but still) as a nation heavily focussed on manufacturing exports and maritime trade did a serious number on Britain's economy in the end, to American businesses' benefit.

The economic decline of Britain is tangled up in these things, but it's actually even more complected then that. The British after the first World War did a number on themselves through aggressive budget austerity measures. While the socialist government after WW2 obviously did a lot of important things, keeping much of the economy "managed" was a mistake IMO. Then you have the surprisingly negative impacts of consolidation in prominent industries, the decline in industries that the British were world leaders in (like steam boilers), the infiltration of UK auto unions by KGB agents...it's a big ball of wire that I find fascinating but is admittedly very difficult to untangle thanks to its interconnected-ness.

bewbies
Sep 23, 2003

Fun Shoe
I've always kind of felt like the ACW vaulted the US from "growing third rate backwater" into a major global industrial and military power but I guess I don't really have numbers to back up this perception.

Kopijeger
Feb 14, 2010
Seems more like the industrial expansion in the post-ACW era was what made it a major industrial power, but it wouldn't have been considered a major military power until WWI at the earliest.

Fangz
Jul 5, 2007

Oh I see! This must be the Bad Opinion Zone!

Nebakenezzer posted:

What is your argument, anyway? I don't get what you want to say.

Mostly I initially just wanted to disagree with what seemed like ahem, stupid supply side bullshit. But generally speaking I would say that wars had historically both positive and negative effects on the economy. There's a general consensus amongst economists that WWII in the US provides a strong example of war driving economic development (both in the war itself and comparing pre and post war) and those guys are not all crazy.

I think also rather than using all this weird civilian productivity thing, this is all really easy to understand using the Philips curve and mainstream economics. Inflation was high during the war and the post-war era because total economic growth was *too fast*. Workers were in high demand with the economy close to full employment. This means firms had to raise wages to attract workers, and raise prices to pay for those wages etc etc.

Agean90
Jun 28, 2008


bewbies posted:

I've always kind of felt like the ACW vaulted the US from "growing third rate backwater" into a major global industrial and military power but I guess I don't really have numbers to back up this perception.

I don't think the us became a major power until the 1890s when the Spanish American war happened and everyone suddenly noticed the world class navy the us had built up. The post civil war I think was more the us being noticed as a power in North america. Potent on it's own soil, but not really able to reach beyond that too far.

Well What Now
Nov 10, 2016

by Fluffdaddy
Shredded Hen

bewbies posted:

I've always kind of felt like the ACW vaulted the US from "growing third rate backwater" into a major global industrial and military power but I guess I don't really have numbers to back up this perception.

It could've been but then we decided not to bother with becoming a global industrial power and focused on killing Plains Indians for the next two decades instead. America's development into a proper world power doesn't really start until the mid-1880s and only really takes off a decade later.

Mr Enderby
Mar 28, 2015

Fangz posted:

Mostly I initially just wanted to disagree with what seemed like ahem, stupid supply side bullshit. But generally speaking I would say that wars had historically both positive and negative effects on the economy. There's a general consensus amongst economists that WWII in the US provides a strong example of war driving economic development (both in the war itself and comparing pre and post war) and those guys are not all crazy.

I don't disagree with any of what you've said, except the political position you seem to be projecting onto my posts. The fact that right wing politicians like to talk up the importance of the supply side as an excuse to cut taxes and regulation, doesn't mean that productivity has no role in inflation. It just means the methods suggested by self-appointed "supply side economists" are usually dumb.

Fangz posted:

I think also rather than using all this weird civilian productivity thing, this is all really easy to understand using the Philips curve and mainstream economics. Inflation was high during the war and the post-war era because total economic growth was *too fast*. Workers were in high demand with the economy close to full employment. This means firms had to raise wages to attract workers, and raise prices to pay for those wages etc etc.

Sure. (I mean, I still think that building tanks rather than cars is going to make cars more expensive, but feel free to disagree). My main original point stands. Wars cause inflation. Sometimes this is good, sometimes bad.

Solaris 2.0
May 14, 2008

Agean90 posted:

I don't think the us became a major power until the 1890s when the Spanish American war happened and everyone suddenly noticed the world class navy the us had built up. The post civil war I think was more the us being noticed as a power in North america. Potent on it's own soil, but not really able to reach beyond that too far.

I remember reading somewhere that the Union Army was the most powerful standing army on Earth in April 1865. Obviously that changed rapidly during demobilization, but was this true? It would make sense considering the US had just finished fighting a total war against the Southern States.

That said, to your point, it wasn't until the aftermath of the Spanish American war that European powers began to take the U.S. seriously as major player in the world.

golden bubble
Jun 3, 2011

yospos

Raenir Salazar posted:

Granted I only have the one source but it seems like in China it was more of a bottom-up thing the government just happen to take advantage of, they had it sorta, but it doesn't to appear to me as being a centralized thing, the big development was a Central Bank to act as a lender of last resort and a bunch of other regulations and "patches" to the system and that took a lot longer.

Well, Imperial Chinese control of the monetary policy was often much lower than their propaganda claimed. For example, during the reign of Emperor Xuanzong several predominate court officials seriously considered legalizing all counterfeit minting operations, and the Emperor actually ended up declaring silk to be legal tender. There were many banknotes and experiments with paper money from the Tang dynasty onwards. But counter-fitting, unscrupulous administrators, short-sighted imperial policy, and a dozen other reasons ensured that every classical Chinese paper currency suffered from hyper-inflation within a century. Hence, Qing China was back on the silver standard by the opium wars\.

Jamwad Hilder
Apr 18, 2007

surfin usa

Solaris 2.0 posted:

I remember reading somewhere that the Union Army was the most powerful standing army on Earth in April 1865. Obviously that changed rapidly during demobilization, but was this true? It would make sense considering the US had just finished fighting a total war against the Southern States.

That was John Keegan, I want to say. I can see the argument for it, but it's kind of impossible to prove if it's true or not.

OpenlyEvilJello
Dec 28, 2009

It might be worth noting that there's a big debate raging in economics right now about how to measure productivity, largely driven by its at best anemic growth (relative to historical trends) in the last couple decades.

Agean90
Jun 28, 2008


Solaris 2.0 posted:

I remember reading somewhere that the Union Army was the most powerful standing army on Earth in April 1865. Obviously that changed rapidly during demobilization, but was this true? It would make sense considering the US had just finished fighting a total war against the Southern States.

True, and I remember the prussians obseving how strong artillery and a large conscript army was and applying that to the Franco Prussian war. The civil war convinced the European powers that tangling with the U.S. in the new world would be a bad idea, since the U.S. now had experienced officers that could create several large, well organized army and were becoming more aware how good fortifications were.

Sadly this atrophied, then the army was back to being a clown show by the time the Spanish American war rolled around.

HEY GUNS
Oct 11, 2012

FOPTIMUS PRIME

OpenlyEvilJello posted:

It might be worth noting that there's a big debate raging in economics right now about how to measure productivity, largely driven by its at best anemic growth (relative to historical trends) in the last couple decades.
hot take: the 1950s was the anomaly, the natural state of everything on this sublunar sphere is to suck, dehumanize yourself and face to the 17th century crisis

Hunt11
Jul 24, 2013

Grimey Drawer

Agean90 posted:

True, and I remember the prussians obseving how strong artillery and a large conscript army was and applying that to the Franco Prussian war. The civil war convinced the European powers that tangling with the U.S. in the new world would be a bad idea, since the U.S. now had experienced officers that could create several large, well organized army and were becoming more aware how good fortifications were.

Sadly this atrophied, then the army was back to being a clown show by the time the Spanish American war rolled around.

Do you have sources for this bit? From my understanding of history the prospect of doing anything involving the New World was far from every-bodies mind. Africa and Asia were ripe for exploitation and no matter how confident a country was, I doubt they would be too keen on fighting the British who even when the US was weak were quite happy to bar any further colonization efforts into the area.

Kellsterik
Mar 30, 2012

golden bubble posted:

Well, Imperial Chinese control of the monetary policy was often much lower than their propaganda claimed. For example, during the reign of Emperor Xuanzong several predominate court officials seriously considered legalizing all counterfeit minting operations, and the Emperor actually ended up declaring silk to be legal tender.

What would be the advantage of legalizing counterfeiting? Is it just admitting defeat and not bothering with wasting resources on enforcement?

dublish
Oct 31, 2011


Hunt11 posted:

Do you have sources for this bit? From my understanding of history the prospect of doing anything involving the New World was far from every-bodies mind. Africa and Asia were ripe for exploitation and no matter how confident a country was, I doubt they would be too keen on fighting the British who even when the US was weak were quite happy to bar any further colonization efforts into the area.

Well, there was the French in Mexico.

Agean90
Jun 28, 2008


dublish posted:

Well, there was the French in Mexico.

Pretty much this. I dont mean to imply that Europe was looking at 19th century North America with hungry eyes, more that it went from "Well if we have the opportunity" to "lol no"

xthetenth
Dec 30, 2012

Mario wasn't sure if this Jeb guy was a good influence on Yoshi.

It's worth remembering that part of the reason Cinco de Mayo is as big a deal in the US as it is is because it's celebrating a battle that had an impact on how likely the Union thought intervention in the Civil War was.

Nebakenezzer posted:

I *think* that's a negatory, good buddy. I hope to understand this a little better once I get back to "A European tragedy", but it seems that even with gold as money being true, the heads of Europe were not constrained by this. Because bankers were actually able to deficit finance the Holy Roman Emperor (etc.) cash was a matter of good credit rather than actually having the money. The real restricting factor was how much more money you were likely to have rolling in the next year or two. I guess if Spain didn't have literal gold mines in the new world, they would be more restricted in their credit - though people who know better than I would have to say if that'd prevent any actual wars.


I believe selling off crown holdings such as land factored into the funding of wars for rulers that didn't have the same influx of raw cash.

xthetenth fucked around with this message at 04:13 on Dec 6, 2016

sullat
Jan 9, 2012

xthetenth posted:

It's worth remembering that part of the reason Cinco de Mayo is as big a deal in the US as it is is because it's celebrating a battle that had an impact on how likely the Union thought intervention in the Civil War was.

Really? I thought it was a holiday promoted by Mexican-Americans to give themselves their own holiday, since celebrating another country's independence day is poor form. Much like St. Paddy's day.

xthetenth
Dec 30, 2012

Mario wasn't sure if this Jeb guy was a good influence on Yoshi.

sullat posted:

Really? I thought it was a holiday promoted by Mexican-Americans to give themselves their own holiday, since celebrating another country's independence day is poor form. Much like St. Paddy's day.

I wouldn't be surprised if that's also a major contribution, however Mexico celebrates their independence Day on the anniversary of the proclamation of the war of independence on September 16, 1810, not Cinco de Mayo, which is celebrating the victory at the Battle of Puebla on May 5, 1862. The years are relevant, although it seems that part of it is because it was a big deal for the Mexican population of California.

OpenlyEvilJello
Dec 28, 2009

HEY GAL posted:

hot take: the 1950s was the anomaly, the natural state of everything on this sublunar sphere is to suck, dehumanize yourself and face to the 17th century crisis

They don't call it the dismal science for nothing.

TerminalSaint
Apr 21, 2007


Where must we go...

we who wander this Wasteland in search of our better selves?

sullat posted:

Really? I thought it was a holiday promoted by Mexican-Americans to give themselves their own holiday, since celebrating another country's independence day is poor form. Much like St. Paddy's day.

Up north it's just an excuse for white people to drink frozen margaritas.

sullat
Jan 9, 2012

TerminalSaint posted:

Up north it's just an excuse for white people to drink frozen margaritas.

Right; up until the 80s or so, it was a regional holiday in Puebla. Starting in the 80s, Mexican-Americans started using it as a Mexican holiday, an excuse for them to have a party. Gradually everyone else picked it up because, hey, any excuse for a Margarita, amirite? I don't think there was a sense of "OK, the US is tangentally involved in the fight against Maxmillian, so let's celebrate here as well", but, "Hey, we need a holiday that's not Mexican independence day to celebrate, this one seems cool" and then it was picked up by everyone else.

Kopijeger
Feb 14, 2010

TerminalSaint posted:

Up north it's just an excuse for white people to drink frozen margaritas.

You know, Mexicans can be white as well:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mexicans_of_European_descent

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Fusion Restaurant
May 20, 2015

Fangz posted:

Ultimately there's an usual meaning for productivity in the literature and in the US over WWII it increased a lot. I'm not super interested in the semantic argument.

Sorry, but what is that definition? The only one I'm familiar w/ is the output per unit input. I could see the answer for WWII being pretty different if you are talking about output per person hour vs. output per capita, both of which are measures of productivity used in econ literature, at least.

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