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Count Roland
Oct 6, 2013

Just some stuff I came across:



From the below wiki, but I didn't find an explanation for what those Blocks actually meant
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/World-systems_theory

And from the same article:

'A world map of countries by trading status in late 20th century using the world system differentiation into core countries (blue), semi-periphery countries (yellow) and periphery countries (red), based on the list in Dunn, Kawano, Brewer (2000)'

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Archduke Frantz Fanon
Sep 7, 2004

Count Roland posted:

Just some stuff I came across:



From the below wiki, but I didn't find an explanation for what those Blocks actually meant
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/World-systems_theory

This looks like one of those reddit alt history maps with countries like Nassarist-Marxist African Union and Republic of the Tzardom.

Blut
Sep 11, 2009

if someone is in the bottom 10%~ of a guillotine

Byzantine posted:

No, I am not defending Stalin. Are you defending the Polish conquest of Kyiv? Poland invading from the west is what caused the independent Ukrainian State to collapse and be split between Poland and Russia.

No, I was defending the right of Polish (and Lithuanian, and Latvian, and Estonian for that matter) people not to be annexed and ethnically cleansed by Stalin in 1939 and 1945. Which you tried to justify for some reason because Nazis.

Groda
Mar 17, 2005

Hair Elf

FreudianSlippers posted:

It's Guy Maddin, buddy.

I met Guy Maddin earlier this year, and now I know that he's just a John Waters raised entirely on A Prairie Home Companion.

BIG FLUFFY DOG
Feb 16, 2011

On the internet, nobody knows you're a dog.


Count Roland posted:

Just some stuff I came across:



From the below wiki, but I didn't find an explanation for what those Blocks actually meant
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/World-systems_theory

And from the same article:

'A world map of countries by trading status in late 20th century using the world system differentiation into core countries (blue), semi-periphery countries (yellow) and periphery countries (red), based on the list in Dunn, Kawano, Brewer (2000)'

im warsaw pact ireland

Minenfeld!
Aug 21, 2012



Other*

TinTower
Apr 21, 2010

You don't have to 8e a good person to 8e a hero.
Under the old definition, Ireland was a third-world country.

Under the new definition, Britain is a third-world country instead. :v:

Byzantine
Sep 1, 2007

Blut posted:

No, I was defending the right of Polish (and Lithuanian, and Latvian, and Estonian for that matter) people not to be annexed and ethnically cleansed by Stalin in 1939 and 1945. Which you tried to justify for some reason because Nazis.

No, I didn't. Like, I don't know what I posted that came off that way. The only thing I posted about the Nazis was how incredibly stupid it was to cut a deal with them.

BonHair
Apr 28, 2007

Soviet Commubot posted:

Fixed a bit for you. Celtic is a language group and Irish is just one of them. There are two subgroups, the Goidelic languages, Irish, Scots Gaelic and Manx and the Brittonic languages, Welsh, Cornish and Breton. At least the ones that aren't entirely dead and I'm being extremely generous to Cornish and Manx with that.

The languages in India are much more different than English and Irish. They're both part of the larger Indo-European family. The only languages in Europe that aren't are Basque (isolate) Finnish, Estonian, Hungarian and Samí (Uralic) and Maltese (Semitic). The Indian languages they're talking about are in completely different families, like Scots Gaelic and Arabic or Finnish and Berber. That said, Scandinavia sure has done a great job trying to suppress Samí and both the French and Spanish have done their damndest to kill Basque as well. They've done a lot of work but all this pesky nonsense about "human rights" and such took the bite out of it, although for many of their minority languages the damage is done and all they need is benign neglect to finish the job. India is less concerned with those things so I'm sure they could accomplish it, given the time.

Good point about Irish, I wanted to highlight that I didn't mean Irish accent English, but yeah, Irish is its own language.

My point is that it doesn't matter how related languages are when it comes to exterminating them. From an imperialist perspective, either it's mutually intelligible with your language or it's not, and if it's not, those barbarians need to learn the imperial language. Which they will probably, unless they can pull an Asterix and remain self sufficient and independent. I don't actually know about Tamil speakers, but I imagine a lot of them have Hindi and/or English as a second language. I know that the upper class in Morocco speak French, which is obviously completely unrelated to Moroccan.

Also there are also the various sign languages that are indigenous to Europe, plus all the ones that have been exterminated since the Romans (and before). I think rural Russia still has a few minority Finnic languages too.

Saladman
Jan 12, 2010

BonHair posted:

My point is that it doesn't matter how related languages are when it comes to exterminating them. From an imperialist perspective, either it's mutually intelligible with your language or it's not, and if it's not, those barbarians need to learn the imperial language.

That's really not necessarily true. The Ottoman Empire controlled most of the Arab world for hundreds of years – some of it quite tenuously and in name only like Tunisia, but other parts quite closely. Only a handful of administrators ever learned Turkish, in addition to the tiny minority of Turkoman expatriates thinly spread throughout administrative centers. Arabic was the language for 99% of communication in modern-day Iraq and Syria in 1850.

So it was basically the other way around -- a handful of high-level administrators and tax collectors, who would be from Istanbul in the first place and sent as colonial administrators, would need to learn Arabic (or whatever local language). Very few people spoke Turkish once you got east / southeast of Anatolia. Even with most local administrators you would speak in Arabic, even if you also spoke Turkish.

Dunno what older European or East Asian empires were like, but the Ottoman Empire was absolutely not pushing its own language on people.

E: I think the big difference is whether you consider imperialism "I want to make your land part of my country for reals" sense like Russia in Siberia or the UK in New Zealand/Australia, or imperialism in the "I want an overseas playground-murderpit-resource extraction" sense like the US in Cuba, Belgium in Congo, or the UK in India.

Saladman fucked around with this message at 09:26 on Jul 20, 2023

Kenning
Jan 11, 2009

I really want to post goatse. Instead I only have these🍄.



One of the canonical differences between an empire and a nation-state is the degree to which the language of the ruling elite is imposed as the language of the masses. In the pre-state period it was much more common for the conquering peoples to eventually accommodate to the ways of life and language of the conquered peoples. This happened with Turkic conquerors in northern China in the Five Dynasties and Ten Kingdoms period, and the Normans conquest in England, and the Mughals in India. Generally speaking forcible conversion of language minorities is a process of state-building, rather than empire-building (just ask the Occitan speakers in southern France).

Jezza of OZPOS
Mar 21, 2018


GET LOSE❌🗺️, YOUS CAN'T COMPARE😤 WITH ME 💪POWERS🇦🇺

Kenning posted:

One of the canonical differences between an empire and a nation-state is the degree to which the language of the ruling elite is imposed as the language of the masses. In the pre-state period it was much more common for the conquering peoples to eventually accommodate to the ways of life and language of the conquered peoples. This happened with Turkic conquerors in northern China in the Five Dynasties and Ten Kingdoms period, and the Normans conquest in England, and the Mughals in India. Generally speaking forcible conversion of language minorities is a process of state-building, rather than empire-building (just ask the Occitan speakers in southern France).

i feel like we were taught extremely different definitions of 'state' and 'empire' because this reads like gibberish

Guavanaut
Nov 27, 2009

Looking At Them Tittys
1969 - 1998



Toilet Rascal
language was a mistage

A Buttery Pastry
Sep 4, 2011

Delicious and Informative!
:3:

Jezza of OZPOS posted:

i feel like we were taught extremely different definitions of 'state' and 'empire' because this reads like gibberish
It reads like they're using state as a synonym for nation-state.

Saladman posted:

That's really not necessarily true. The Ottoman Empire controlled most of the Arab world for hundreds of years – some of it quite tenuously and in name only like Tunisia, but other parts quite closely. Only a handful of administrators ever learned Turkish, in addition to the tiny minority of Turkoman expatriates thinly spread throughout administrative centers. Arabic was the language for 99% of communication in modern-day Iraq and Syria in 1850.
I feel like Arabic must have had an exceptionally strong position culturally within the empire, just for the simple fact that it was the original language of the state religion. Like, if educated Catholics and Protestants were kind of expected to learn Latin, then learning an actual living equivalent when everyone around you is a native seems like a pretty sensible expectation - rather than expecting them to learn your language.

Not that this means every non-Turkish or Arabic language was suppressed, just that Arabic had about as strong a reason to remain untouched by a foreign empire as you can really come up with.

Jezza of OZPOS
Mar 21, 2018


GET LOSE❌🗺️, YOUS CAN'T COMPARE😤 WITH ME 💪POWERS🇦🇺

A Buttery Pastry posted:

It reads like they're using state as a synonym for nation-state.

yeah that tracks I skipped over that and read "prestate era" and got extremely confused. I still think its a completely arbitrary distinction even by the standards of history as a discipline

a pipe smoking dog
Jan 25, 2010

"haha, dogs can't smoke!"

Saladman posted:

That's really not necessarily true. The Ottoman Empire controlled most of the Arab world for hundreds of years – some of it quite tenuously and in name only like Tunisia, but other parts quite closely. Only a handful of administrators ever learned Turkish, in addition to the tiny minority of Turkoman expatriates thinly spread throughout administrative centers. Arabic was the language for 99% of communication in modern-day Iraq and Syria in 1850.

So it was basically the other way around -- a handful of high-level administrators and tax collectors, who would be from Istanbul in the first place and sent as colonial administrators, would need to learn Arabic (or whatever local language). Very few people spoke Turkish once you got east / southeast of Anatolia. Even with most local administrators you would speak in Arabic, even if you also spoke Turkish.

Dunno what older European or East Asian empires were like, but the Ottoman Empire was absolutely not pushing its own language on people.

E: I think the big difference is whether you consider imperialism "I want to make your land part of my country for reals" sense like Russia in Siberia or the UK in New Zealand/Australia, or imperialism in the "I want an overseas playground-murderpit-resource extraction" sense like the US in Cuba, Belgium in Congo, or the UK in India.

Isn't the Ottoman situation a bit more akin to something like the Mughals or the Qing? The outside ruling group grafts itself onto a pre-existing empire and the court language changes but the language of day to day business remains the same.

I suppose Turkish is different in that they displaced two empires (the greek byzantine and the arab caliphate) and the way Turkish as a language interacted with both was different.

Negostrike
Aug 15, 2015


Guavanaut posted:

language was a mistage



Says the one using one. Checkmate

JesustheDarkLord
May 22, 2006

#VolsDeep
Lipstick Apathy

Kenning posted:

One of the canonical differences between an empire and a nation-state is the degree to which the language of the ruling elite is imposed as the language of the masses.

[Citation Needed]

ChubbyChecker
Mar 25, 2018

acccthually the difference is if you go around genociding on foot/horse or on boat

Saladman
Jan 12, 2010

a pipe smoking dog posted:

Isn't the Ottoman situation a bit more akin to something like the Mughals or the Qing? The outside ruling group grafts itself onto a pre-existing empire and the court language changes but the language of day to day business remains the same.

I suppose Turkish is different in that they displaced two empires (the greek byzantine and the arab caliphate) and the way Turkish as a language interacted with both was different.

I don't know anything about the Mughals at all, but it's quite different from the Normans or the Qing. It would be similar to the Normans if the British were speaking French today, or if everyone spoke Manchu in China by 1920. Within Anatolia, the language of day to day business (and taxation!) was very much Turkish throughout the empire, even though Greeks would speak Greek, Armenians Armenian, and so forth. I'm sure they had Greek or Greek-speaking tax collectors in Greek-majority areas, but it'd probably be like getting around the USA with Spanish today. In that, yeah you can do it but also it'd be pretty isolating unless you never left Miami.

So if you were in Izmir (majority Greek just before the 1923 ethnic cleansing) you could get around with Greek just fine, but anyone there who was a professional merchant that ever dealt with overland trade would also speak Turkish. Vice-versa, even very well educated Turks would generally not speak Greek or Armenian, so a traveller through any part of Anatolia except the Greek-majority coastal areas would 100% need to learn Turkish or take an interpreter. This is by 1800 - I've read really a lot of travelogs from that period - so no idea if in like, 1600, if the language of commerce was still largely Greek.

Tree Goat
May 24, 2009

argania spinosa

Guavanaut posted:

language was a mistage



why are there two babylons

SlothfulCobra
Mar 27, 2011

One of the classic definitions of imperialism is about the ability of the state to rule over many peoples instead of just one, although that's kind of a vague thing.

Kenning posted:

One of the canonical differences between an empire and a nation-state is the degree to which the language of the ruling elite is imposed as the language of the masses. In the pre-state period it was much more common for the conquering peoples to eventually accommodate to the ways of life and language of the conquered peoples. This happened with Turkic conquerors in northern China in the Five Dynasties and Ten Kingdoms period, and the Normans conquest in England, and the Mughals in India. Generally speaking forcible conversion of language minorities is a process of state-building, rather than empire-building (just ask the Occitan speakers in southern France).

Are you saying that the Mughals aren't an empire? Or that the Normans are? Are the Anglo-Saxons an empire? The empire of Rome ended up supplanting a lot of the local languages of Europe so that to this day they speak derivations of latin, even if they didn't eliminate Greek.

The nebulous idea of a nation-state seems to come more from just buying into myths about some particularly old and relatively stable states rather than their actual reality anyways.

Tree Goat posted:

why are there two babylons

It was such a tall tower, that's where the top landed when it fell.

Edgar Allen Ho
Apr 3, 2017

by sebmojo
Another reason I don’t see India being fully hindified is that languages like telugu, tamil, and kannada have millions and millions of speakers with a large written and cultural history. Plus a rivalry with the north such that they prefer english as lingua franca. There’s no pressure on parents to teach kids the court language for their own good. In contrast parisian court french had an overstated role within and without France that not even occitan could come close to matching, let alone something like gallo.

It’s not impossible but I don’t see it happening before we’re all underwater.

Judgy Fucker
Mar 24, 2006

Re: Arabic retaining it's lingua franca status during the Ottoman period, how much would Arabic being the prestige language of Islam have played into not trying to supplant it with Turkish? Besides the logistical issues of changing the language of 10s of millions of people, naturally.

Tree Goat posted:

why are there two babylons

I mean, we know there's at least five, right?

Reveilled
Apr 19, 2007

Take up your rifles

Tree Goat posted:

why are there two babylons

I think that might actually be "Babylos" so it might just be the author's weird rear end was of spelling of Byblos, made doubly weird by it being a bible map so you'd expect it to be labelled "Gebal".

Soviet Commubot
Oct 22, 2008


BonHair posted:

My point is that it doesn't matter how related languages are when it comes to exterminating them. From an imperialist perspective, either it's mutually intelligible with your language or it's not, and if it's not, those barbarians need to learn the imperial language.

That's not always the case. Before the French Revolution only about 1/2 of the French population even spoke French. The Revolution is really when they started their linguicidal policies and it took them until the 20th century to really hammer down. I speak Breton so I'm very familiar with the history. Also I agreed that it doesn't really matter how related the languages are, right here

quote:

The only languages in Europe that aren't are Basque (isolate) Finnish, Estonian, Hungarian and Samí (Uralic) and Maltese (Semitic)

quote:

That said, Scandinavia sure has done a great job trying to suppress Samí and both the French and Spanish have done their damndest to kill Basque as well
.

BonHair posted:

Which they will probably, unless they can pull an Asterix and remain self sufficient and independent. I don't actually know about Tamil speakers, but I imagine a lot of them have Hindi and/or English as a second language. I know that the upper class in Morocco speak French, which is obviously completely unrelated to Moroccan.

Also there are also the various sign languages that are indigenous to Europe, plus all the ones that have been exterminated since the Romans (and before). I think rural Russia still has a few minority Finnic languages too.

About 18% of the Welsh speak Welsh and that number is growing, despite being literally right next to England. The process of linguicide can be fought back against, especially in the modern era where just slaughtering or beating them isn't quite as acceptable as it was, at least in the West. Unless they're protesting of course, I sucked in my share of CS gas at pro-Breton language and pro-Occitan language protests and the cops there had no real compunction about using their clubs.

Russia has a large number of minority languages. There are 26 that are official at the subnational level, only two are Indo-European and several of them have a significant number of speakers. This is in spite of the best efforts of the various forms of the Russian Empire. Don't get me wrong, they did a tremendous amount of damage and a lot of them will die at some point as Russia's policies have become even more ethno-nationalist recently. They did dig up an old tried and true strategy in 2022 by sending disproportional numbers of minority ethnicities from the Far East to Ukraine like the Buryats.

Tree Goat
May 24, 2009

argania spinosa

Reveilled posted:

I think that might actually be "Babylos" so it might just be the author's weird rear end was of spelling of Byblos, made doubly weird by it being a bible map so you'd expect it to be labelled "Gebal".

still looks like an "n" when i zoom in but i bet you're right and it's meant to be byblos

Reveilled
Apr 19, 2007

Take up your rifles

Tree Goat posted:

still looks like an "n" when i zoom in but i bet you're right and it's meant to be byblos

I agree it looks like an n, but if you compare the two side by side you can see the kerning between the o and the last character is different on the two names even though the rest of the letters are identical, so I think that implies the last letter of the word used for Byblos can't be an n.

Tree Goat
May 24, 2009

argania spinosa

Reveilled posted:

I agree it looks like an n, but if you compare the two side by side you can see the kerning between the o and the last character is different on the two names even though the rest of the letters are identical, so I think that implies the last letter of the word used for Byblos can't be an n.


baffling. get it together, weird bible map person!

Judgy Fucker posted:

I mean, we know there's at least five, right?

oh true, and through that whole time travel thing there's a precedent for multiple simultaneous babylons

Saladman
Jan 12, 2010

Judgy Fucker posted:

Re: Arabic retaining it's lingua franca status during the Ottoman period, how much would Arabic being the prestige language of Islam have played into not trying to supplant it with Turkish? Besides the logistical issues of changing the language of 10s of millions of people, naturally.

Probably not hugely? Latin died just fine despite it being a prestige language, and while lay-Muslims have always been supposed to learn the Koran (unlike learning the Bible in Latin, which was ecclesiastical only), in reality you just memorize a handful of prayers, except for a tiny minority of boys who would have gone to Koranic school. Until the past like 50-120 years, education was so rare/expensive that 99% of boys and 99.9% of girls couldn't afford to care about "prestige" or not.

On that note, the Maghreb did eventually switch to Arabic after colonization, but while it may have been gradually happening after the initial conquest, it was vastly accelerated after the invasion by the Banu Hilal in the 11th century, who numerically and politically overwhelmed the Berbers and the small remaining Christian community. ±1 million Banu Hilal came within 100 years, against a total population of ±5 million Maghrebis, and coastal regions would have been even more overwhelmed. The Banu Hilal were sent there to invade and colonize specifically to punish the rebellious Maghrebis and correct their errant and heretical interpretation of Islam, so I suspect they came with a good mix of both cultural genocide and old fashioned genocide. For Egypt there probably are fairly detailed records about the linguistic shift from Coptic to Greek to Arabic, but I don't really know so much about Egyptian history.

Also what is or is not a prestige language can be highly political. For instance the Kabyle Berbers of Algeria very strongly dislike Arabic and vastly prefer speaking French with people who don't speak Kabyle. This is probably a longstanding sentiment given that they've been successively colonized by numerous groups over 2200 years and yet still speak Berber, despite living in a highly connected coastal region.

IANA Linguist though.

FreudianSlippers
Apr 12, 2010

Shooting and Fucking
are the same thing!

Groda posted:

I met Guy Maddin earlier this year, and now I know that he's just a John Waters raised entirely on A Prairie Home Companion.

This is extremely spot on.

Edgar Allen Ho
Apr 3, 2017

by sebmojo

Saladman posted:

Probably not hugely? Latin died just fine despite it being a prestige language, and while lay-Muslims have always been supposed to learn the Koran (unlike learning the Bible in Latin, which was ecclesiastical only), in reality you just memorize a handful of prayers, except for a tiny minority of boys who would have gone to Koranic school. Until the past like 50-120 years, education was so rare/expensive that 99% of boys and 99.9% of girls couldn't afford to care about "prestige" or not.

On that note, the Maghreb did eventually switch to Arabic after colonization, but while it may have been gradually happening after the initial conquest, it was vastly accelerated after the invasion by the Banu Hilal in the 11th century, who numerically and politically overwhelmed the Berbers and the small remaining Christian community. ±1 million Banu Hilal came within 100 years, against a total population of ±5 million Maghrebis, and coastal regions would have been even more overwhelmed. The Banu Hilal were sent there to invade and colonize specifically to punish the rebellious Maghrebis and correct their errant and heretical interpretation of Islam, so I suspect they came with a good mix of both cultural genocide and old fashioned genocide. For Egypt there probably are fairly detailed records about the linguistic shift from Coptic to Greek to Arabic, but I don't really know so much about Egyptian history.

Also what is or is not a prestige language can be highly political. For instance the Kabyle Berbers of Algeria very strongly dislike Arabic and vastly prefer speaking French with people who don't speak Kabyle. This is probably a longstanding sentiment given that they've been successively colonized by numerous groups over 2200 years and yet still speak Berber, despite living in a highly connected coastal region.

IANA Linguist though.

Did latin really die, though?

No one but a rare few speak classical or church latin, as in, can hold a conversation. But it never went away, it just changed over two thousand years. That's way different than say, scottish gaelic where people tried to bring it back from the brink of extinction, or diné bizaad, which is preserved as-is for 200 years as a defiance to genocide, or biblical hebrew, which no one speaks outside of schul. I see this as a fundamental difference. When I speak french, I'm still speaking gallic latin, sort of.

SlothfulCobra
Mar 27, 2011

I'd actually question how much all the romantic languages should count as just a continuation of Latin anyways, even if they're all separate from eachother. I don't think most languages stay much the same over more than a millennium anyways.

i say swears online
Mar 4, 2005

yeah i wonder how different latin -> romanian is compared to Old Arabic and today's varieties

Count Roland
Oct 6, 2013



From: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Varieties_of_Arabic

(not meant to be an answer to ^^, just fodder to help thread to discuss the question)

Randarkman
Jul 18, 2011

a pipe smoking dog posted:

I suppose Turkish is different in that they displaced two empires (the greek byzantine and the arab caliphate) and the way Turkish as a language interacted with both was different.

This was discussed in other posts as well, but I just wanted to note that the "Arab Caliphate" as it were, as an empire, was long dead for centuries already by the time the Ottoman Empire emerged.

Furthermore with discussion of Turkish vs Greek it seems that many often have a tendency to jump straight to the Ottoman Empire and overlook the history of the 11th through 14th century of Turkish settlement, state formation and assimilation (of the locals) in Anatolia. IIRC by many accounts, the majority of Anatolia, especially the plateau, was had already been thoroughly assimilated into a Turkish-speaking, Sunni Muslim (though profoundly influenced by sufi traditions) civilization/culture by the 13th century* or so (outside really of select coastal regions that remained majority Greek-speaking and Christian until modern times).

A similar note can be made about the Turkmen/Turkoman ethnic groups in Syria and Iraq, that often seem to be assumed to be a by-product of the Ottoman Empire, but again substantially pre-date that, as regions such as Al-Jazira in modern day Syria had climate and terrain conditions that were very amenable to settlement of Turkish pastoralists and saw large numbers of them do just that starting in the late 10th/early 11th centuries. These tribes continued being an important source of manpower for the Turkish military aristocrats (who were of course substantially married into the local aristocracies, Arab and Kurdish, most notably the Ayyubids) who ruled the region from the mid-11th century.

*Not surprisingly coinciding with Western European sources starting to refer to Anatolia as "Turcia" around the same time

Randarkman fucked around with this message at 07:52 on Jul 21, 2023

Grape
Nov 16, 2017

Happily shilling for China!
Greeks are essentially amphibious, and basically need to be near water. Inland Anatolia was never going to have a strong Hellenic imprint.

I am only half joking

BIG FLUFFY DOG
Feb 16, 2011

On the internet, nobody knows you're a dog.


Grape posted:

Greeks are essentially amphibious, and basically need to be near water. Inland Anatolia was never going to have a strong Hellenic imprint.

I am only half joking

Explain Alexander the Great then

BonHair
Apr 28, 2007

BIG FLUFFY DOG posted:

Explain Alexander the Great then

He was Macedonian

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OwlFancier
Aug 22, 2013

BIG FLUFFY DOG posted:

Explain Alexander the Great then

He reached the shore and wept because there were no more worlds to conquer, because he couldn't go any further inland.

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