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NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010


bring back the frug, thanks

also regarding grammatical gender, lots of languages do it in ways that make no logical sense because they retained old holdovers from PIE or other precursor languages. Slavic languages, for example, have not only grammatical gender but some also have animacy (Polish even goes further into virility) which changes the inflected nouns. But it’s sometimes not linked to the actual thing the noun describes, it’s just morphology.

The real trick in Slavic languages isn’t gender though, it’s learning to only use 3 tenses and to use verbal aspect to convey the same effect as English tenses.

NoiseAnnoys has a new favorite as of 08:49 on Mar 7, 2023

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NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

Nessus posted:

By shedding this, English has freed itself of the burden of Proto Indo European, is what I’m getting here.

lol we still have ablaut from PIE which is even dumber.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

the siesta is a very real and wonderful cultural feature. and having spent sometime in the mediterranean during the summer, it's kinda necessary? like holy gently caress does venice suck on a sunny day in august between the hours of 12 and 15, what with the blinding sun everywhere and the heat and the canal smell. but after a nap in the early evening, it is everything you want it to be. i imagine spain to be much the same, except even hotter.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

Alhazred posted:

A fun historical fact: There's historical finds that suggest that Scandinavia were the victims of a bronze embargo during the bronze age that lasted for centuries. The ones responsible for it was the unetice culture who rose to prominens in 2200 BC. They had pretty much a monopoly on bronze trade and while the rest of Europe received plenty of bronze during that period, Scandinavia for some reason didn't. There's even been found flint daggers in Denmark made to resemble bronze daggers:


best beer in bohemia too.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

in the slavic speaking world, western slavic cultures (czech, slovak, sorbian, polish, etc.) went with surnames that were originally nicknames, occupations, or identifying characteristics, but south (e.g. bulgarian, former yugoslavia) and east slavic developed patronymics as well as last names. some of these cultures (e.g. east slavic, macedonian, and bulgarian) then went further and combined patronymics with surnames, while in others (e.g. bosnian, croatian, montenegrin, and serbian) the patronymics became one kind of surname (and then were often imported into west slavic-speaking areas due to migration).

the real divisive thing in czech/slovak right now is how both traditionally turn female surnames into a possessive adjective (e.g. navrátilová- "of the navrátil family"), but czechs can now legally give female children or spouses the unmarked masculine form of the last name.

NoiseAnnoys has a new favorite as of 16:30 on Aug 1, 2023

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

3D Megadoodoo posted:

They absolutely had a /v/ phoneme. You just don't know what a phoneme is. Anyway, they pronounced it as an approximant. (Most variants of English don't have it, which is why you see a lot of "THEY PRONOUNCED IT LINE WENI WIDI WICI GUISE!!!!11111elvatolvakatinkorva" poo poo on the Internet.)

that's not jakobson's definition of a phoneme per se, at least not what i remember of it. but you're not wrong, either.

anyhow, i've long since left the field but iirc, there was a fair amount of evidence against the reading of word itinital "v" v as /v/ and instead as /w/. you can, for example, see confusions in how roman names were transcribed by foreigners and vice versa, and puns that no longer make sense to a reader assuming modern pronunciation, which show a distinct reading of that particular sound as /w/. however, in some words, v was pronounced more as a /v/, but, orthographically "v" stood in for a range of sounds that ancient speakers would understand as entirely different, depending on the position in the word. so it's not wrong to say that there was a /v/ sound, it's just that the orthography of latin isn't a 1-1 transcription of sounds. plus, like with all languages, phonetic shift happened, and you can start to see the gradual shift away from the orthography and pronunciation, and not just with variations of "v" but other letters as well, from old to middle to late latin, and then into church and medieval latin. so by late antiquity v is was most likely pronounced /v/ instead of /w/.

sydney allen was still the authority in that field when i was an undergrad (c.f. his work, vox latina), but i'm not working on latin so i don't know if that remains the case. i'm also not a classical linguist, so take it with a grain of salt anywho.

NoiseAnnoys has a new favorite as of 10:25 on Aug 2, 2023

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

Woolie Wool posted:

Plenty of other sources specify /w/ pretty exactly, which makes sense for a language that did not strongly differentiate V from U. If you are to think of "ueni, uidi, uici" then the /w/ sound is the pretty obvious pronunciation.

also /w/ -> /v/ is a super common sound change that a lot of living and dead languages underwent. a lot fewer languages went /v/ to /w/.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

Tenebrais posted:

In fact, the letter F was in the first Greek alphabet as Wau, and pronounced /w/. It fell off due to most ancient Greek dialects not really using the sound but not before making it into Etruscan, where it did the /v/ shift and became the letter F in roman. And then later, the roman letter V split into U, V and W depending on which variation of the sound you were actually making.

i didn't know that, but that makes sense, considering how limited the early alphabets were and how sound changes went. one of the fascinating things to me is how scribal or literary "misspellings" actually show the evolution of a language's phonetics as the spoken language diverges from the fossilized written one.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

the holy poopacy posted:

By the fall of the western empire Romans were already making fun of Iberians for pronouncing it as /b/, which suggests that the common pronunciation wasn't far off by that point.

yeah, languages change fast, even when they're liturgical or constructed languages. people really forget that sometimes.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

Fake Name posted:

Digging this up from the last page because now I want to know if there are ancient books of bad puns

probably. because good puns don’t exist

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

phoenix wright rear end lookin archduke franz ferdinand motherfucker.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

Vincent Van Goatse posted:

That's meant to be Kaiser Wilhelm (although he looks more like Hitler than Hitler himself does). Franz Ferdinand is the tiny figure in the car.

lol i should have guessed by the janky rear end reichstag

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

getting this as my yakuza back piece as we speak:

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

SerthVarnee posted:

My great granddad was this guy



He proved something that today sounds really loving obvious.
He proved statistically that prices actually ebb and flow due to societal changes, inflation and so forth and NOT as previously assumed "randomly and explosively".
This didn't really catch on at the time though, much to his frustration, because he had written it in Danish which, not being one of the three primary western world languages at the time, meant that he may as well not have bothered writing it in the first place.

His name was Edvard Philip Mackeprang and his dissertation "Pristeorier" (1906) made him the world's first econometrician.

he looks really spry for 120+ years old

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

Carbon dioxide posted:

There were prestigious German chemistry textbooks until the 1980s or so, when everyone switched to English.

linguistics too. the only old church slavonic text book (paul diels' Altkirchenslavische Grammatik) i've seen anyone use is written in german.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

venus de lmao posted:

A lot of linguistics terminology is still German, like Urheimat, Sprachraum, ablaut, umlaut, abstand and ausbau language, etc

There's also "loanword", a word borrowed from a foreign language. "Loanword" itself is not a loanword, but a calque, a verbatim translation of the German Lehnwort.

"Loanword" is a calque and "calque" is a loanword, which I quite like.

yeah, linguistics rules. Aktionsart!

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

it's still true, every ph.d. student had to pass their french and german exams to be even considered for quals at one of my alma maters, and my department required two more on top of that.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

soviet elsa posted:

Every language vaguely adjacent to you boring vikings has it. Great famous WW2 events like the siege of Lenin's Garden, and Fence of Steel Joe.

because iirc there is a shared protoindoeuroean (reconstructed of course) ancestor. *gʰerdʰ-, is what people believe it was but you can find terms for enclosed spaces with similar morphology in most branches of Indo-European language families.I know the Slavic ones the best(e.g. grad, gorod, hrad) but lithuanian and Baltic languages share that root too.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

Offler posted:

According to wiktionary it's from:

So it's the same root as English "guard"

which is the same proto-indoeuropean root, iirc.

no, wait, probably not. guard doesn't go back that far. what does come from the same root in french, i'm pretty sure is hangar.

guard comes from the same root as warden, iirc.

NoiseAnnoys has a new favorite as of 13:23 on Mar 20, 2024

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

yep, it’s the one constant in linguistics that sounds and language change. we can’t predict the change but we can almost always trace it.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

neat

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

Nessus posted:

The nitpicking pedant immortalized the guy's name.

My favorite story in this vein was the guy who was asked at Ellis Island, "NAME? FIRST AND LAST" and stammered out "I don't remember" - but in Yiddish, so "shoyn vergessen."

He was thus duly notarized as new American immigrant Sean Ferguson.

that seems like a pretty lovely move tbh

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

Nessus posted:

My understanding is that Ellis Island sucked poo poo, but in many cases it beat the alternative

what alternative? having your birth name stay your birth name?

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

Brawnfire posted:

You might have to be processed in BOSTON

poor ashkenazi guy wanted to make a new life for himself and he ended up condemned to the cover of a dropkick murphys album

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

it was not, almost all cases of translation of names or renaming that I’m aware of (as someone who defended my PhD thesis about Slavic immigration and cross Atlantic cultural connections) were done voluntarily by immigrants as a way of assimilating or leaving their previous life behind. isolated cases may certainly have existed but the vast majority of name changes that I’m aware of occurred after settling in America.

NoiseAnnoys has a new favorite as of 21:46 on Mar 28, 2024

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

misspelling of names was common of course but that’s not what was being talked about.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

Trabant posted:

Being a Slavic immigrant to the US myself, instead of giving my actual, complicated name at restaurants and such, I give the more manageable, shares-a-few-letters "Boris." It's a transactional event, so why bother.

What's funny is that it then becomes misheard as Morris.

table for Maurice, party of one.

there’s a ton of weird myths about late 19th and early 20th century us immigration that have some how become accepted as gospel truth and they don’t make sense at all once you learn how processing centers like Ellis island functioned.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

patronymics are common in a lot of cultures, ashkenazi Jewish culture included, and those often did get weirdly processed by the American immigration system.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

InediblePenguin posted:

my dad's family probably emigrated in the 19th century but didn't anglicize their names, or stop speaking german at home, until wwii. even then only one side of the family did it and they did it specifically to break up with the other side of the family who were german-american bund nazi supporters. hell yeah pennsylvania

(i don't actually have the right to talk poo poo on pennsylvania, i never lived there myself)

western pa, i'm guessing?

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

Nessus posted:

Is this a case where there are multiple valid readings of the same Cyrillic name, aka the Gaddafi Effect?

it would likely depend on which language you are speaking, since stress patterns fall differently in east slavic and south and east slavic has way more vowel reduction than people realize.

but even in west slavic names, lots of czech and slovak names got either anglicized differently because of phonemic vowel length, or different names were given the same anglicization (usually by stripping away diacritics) and pronunciation when they weren't related in the original language.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

InediblePenguin posted:

lehigh valley? that's where the surviving relatives live now anyway. i don't know if that's where they lived previously actually

also doesn’t surprise me, but i was mainly asking because the exact same thing happened in my hometown out in western pa.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

HopperUK posted:

Yeah, spelling in the Tudor / Elizabethan period in England was 'just do your best with how it sounds to you'. Seeing which words poets of the time apparently thought rhymed with each other is part of how linguists reconstruct the accent of the time, if I understand correctly.

very muchso since orthography was more largely tied to local phonetics than standardized spelling.

one of the great things that helps historical linguists reconstruct how different historical populations spoke is looking at scribal errors-- words that are misspelled because the scribes couldn't hear or tell the difference between the vowels of the original word then get changed in copying texts, or grammatical functions that get dropped by accident when copying because the then-contemporary version of the language has lost certain features which were present in another text.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

the literal translation of the czech name for a doghouse is a dog's chalet, which i think is quite nice.

NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010

zedprime posted:

Oh, like a dog dacha?

aint no dachas west of uhzhhorod. we're in chata country.

(but actually it's psí bouda [bouda pro psy sometimes]).

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NoiseAnnoys
May 17, 2010


you need to wash your dick

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