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P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

HEY GAL posted:

If you're interested at all in actions which are the most hilarious thing you've read that day and, at the same time and for the same reason, a breathtaking tale of human misery and at least one easily-preventable fuckup, you need to study this period.

Looking forward to it, Landsknechte chat has been some of my favorite stuff in this thread.

Is there a generally accepted cutoff point for what constitutes the early modern period? 1453? 1492?

Also, what's the best place to start if I want to start reading up on the Thirty Year's War?

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P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

HEY GAL posted:


If you're just starting out, read Peter Wilson (newest work on the subject, but avoids the war in Italy as well as--I think--anything to do with Muscovy, which is a bummer. Does not avoid the stuff with the Ottomans, which is a plus) or CV Wedgewood (a better writer than Wilson, but kinda out of date now).

Thanks, checking those out.

Is Wedgwood out of date in a "lots of new sources have been found/translated since she wrote", or "historians don't agree with her conclusions anymore" way?

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

So I'm halfway through Wedgwood's Thirty Years War and definitely seeing the WWI influence, with a lot of time spent pointing out every missed chance for peace in the early part of the war. The edition I got has an additional introduction where she admits that the book was strongly influenced by when it was written. She also says that after WWII she no longer thinks all war is pointless, but sticks to her guns that this one in particular was.

Her writing is great though, and I love how flatly declarative it is. It's refreshing to read a historian that just comes out and says "the Elector of the Palatinate was a goober".


While I'm thanking people for book recommendations, thanks to everyone who recommended Shattered Sword. One question that it brings up for me though, is what was Japan's plan to win the war? It's clear to me that they lost the war when the first bomb hit Pearl Harbor, but did the Japanese general staff leave behind any documents detailing what their high level strategy was? Did they have any actual expectation that the US would sue for peace?

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

HEY GAL posted:

Oh yeah--also, it's out of date in that we're all fine with the Empire now. Nobody is going to castigate it any more for not being "like a real state," whatever that means, and we are newly appreciative of its variety and its stability. It is what it is. Deal with it.

Yeah, I notice there's a lot of places where she laments how this or that fatally impeded the formation of a true German nation, with a more or less unspoken assumption that the modern ethnicity-based nation state is the natural evolution of government.

I remember when I was in college taking a few courses in 20th century history, it felt like there was a similar reappraisal going on towards Austria-Hungary. It guess with the wars and ethnic cleansing in the former Yugoslavia fresh in everyone's mind, there was a renewed appreciation for a multi-ethnic state that managed to chug along for a decent run without open warfare. Can anyone tell me if this is a real historiographical trend or just my professors?

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Raskolnikov38 posted:

Austria hungry was a multi-ethnic state in the same way that pre-1865civil rights movement America was a multi-ethnic state. If you're Austrian you're dandy, Hungarian less so but still okay and everyone else could go get hosed.

E: thinking about it I was way too generous with years for the US on that
The pre-civil rights US is in a league of its own. Fun fact- in the 89 years between 1877 and 1966, one (1) white man was convicted of killing a black man in the state of Georgia.

I remember in the maps thread someone posted a "United States of Greater Austria" federalist reform proposal from the early 20th century, which was apparently supported by Franz Ferdinand. Any chance of reform actually happening if he hadn't been shot?

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

sullat posted:

Didn't one of the French kings successfully land an invasion on Albion's shores in the 1200s? My vague recollection is that he was trying to install his own claimant, but was bought off while besieging London.

Prince Louis was proclaimed King of England during the First Baron's War. Then King John promptly died. Many of the barons decided they didn't have any beef with John's son, and switched sides and sent Louis packing back to France with a healthy chunk of change and an agreement that he didn't count as an official king of England.

Dunno if that's the one you were thinking of.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Thanks for the replies. Leaving aside whether that interpretation is correct or not, that answers my question as to whether its a real historiographical trend.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Yeah, this argument has been going on since the war ended. Grant makes a good case in his memoirs that the Northern advantages were not nearly as overwhelming as it appears at first glance. (read Grants memoirs, they're great)

One other point, if the Republicans lose the 1862 or 1864 elections, it doesn't matter what the military or industrial advantage is.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

JaucheCharly posted:

That sounds....odd. What's the line of argumentation here? Everything was kinda ok, because there wasn't a civil war or a genocide?

Considering how many late 19th/early 20th century states don't meet those criteria, it's not completely crazy. :v:

Is there a good, readable summary you'd recommend of how the parliament worked (or didn't)? The impression I get is that a decent number of people recognized the situation was screwed up, had some ideas on what a better system would look like, but there was no viable path to actually get from point A to point B.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

HEY GAL posted:

Secondly, while the Battle of Rocroi frequently used to be called the death knell of Spanish tactics,
I just got up to this part in Wedgwood, and she literally calls it the "gravestone of the Spanish army."

HEY GAL posted:

Edit: They weren't "shelled into compliance," either, they received unusually generous terms when they surrendered, the same that would have been given to a surrendering fortress, which I think meant that their opponents respected what they had done. Drums beating, flags flying, music playing, and musketeers with lit match and with a bullet in each man's mouth, to say "We can still fight if we please, we simply choose not to."

She also doesn't mention this at all, giving the impression the Spanish were all either killed or captured. Which is weird since it's not only an important detail, but a :black101: one. I guess there was some major work done that upended the traditional account of the battle?

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Pharmaskittle posted:

I'm just a history amateur (if even that) and lurker on this thread and I know you guys don't like to get into alternate history too deeply, but would the Soviets have a shot at winning WW2 if the US had never entered the war? I mean, say they keep helping in a proxy way, but not going all in with troops.

Yes. By the time America made significant contributions to the war Moscow had been saved and the darkest hour for the Soviets had already passed. Without US help, Soviet victory would have come later and at even more horrific cost, but it still would have come.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

There was an economist who, a decade before the war, predicted that it would be a trench warfare battle of attrition that wouldn't end without total mobilization and utter ruin of everyone involved. People listened to him, of course.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jan_Gotlib_Bloch

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

In honor of yesterday's events in Brazil, can someone elaborate on the current understanding of Spanish decline in the early modern period? My entirely unresearched understanding is

1) Get rich as hell off of New World gold and silver.
2) Spend pretty much all of it fighting the Turks, the Dutch, the English, the French, etc etc.
3) While this is going on, destroy Spain's domestic real economy through a combination of apathy, corruption, and incompetence.

Is this one of those narratives that has been replaced by a more nuanced understanding that takes more than three sentences to explain?

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

wdarkk posted:

Wasn't there also a part where they dropped the value of gold and silver to the point where they were screwing themselves over?

According to wikipedia inflation in Europe at the time ran about 1 to 1.5%, I don't know how bad that is in pre-fiat money terms. I've always heard it given as a textbook example of inflation, but textbooks are terrible and I don't trust anything they say. I can see how it led to import substitution, but I don't see how that by itself would discourage economic investment unless there were other factors at play. Why was there no Spanish merchant middle class that arose to soak up the money being dumped into the country?

Price levels rose in other countries without inhibiting them from developing economically. There's a link of some kind between the importation of gold and the failure to develop manufacturing, but I guess the crux of my question is whether that link is necessarily causal or if the free money simply helped the state turn a blind eye to an economic system that had problems for other reasons (like expelling the jews and moriscos, let's say).

I also wonder if without New World bullion, if the overall growing European economy would have been hit with deflationary problems instead. I read Mann's 1493 a while back and there was a lot of interesting stuff on how China was desperate to get silver from the Spanish to deal with recurring monetary crises, which it had previously tried to solve with paper money.


(How do gold bugs still exist with all of this history?)

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

EvanSchenck posted:

Not exactly. What you're talking about here is a simplified narrative that tends to be pushed forward at a pop-history or maybe high school level. So it hasn't been replaced by a more nuanced understand, exactly. The more nuanced understanding has been around a long time at a higher grade level, so to speak.

In order:

(1) The popular image of Spain getting rich off mountains of New World gold and silver is not exactly correct. It did contribute to Spain's wealth but in addition to being the basis of currencies at the time, precious metals are a commodity like anything else, so introducing a vast new supply will mean a part of the gains are lost through inflation. Also, that's money coming into Spain, sure, but what do you do with money? You buy poo poo. The income that Spain derived from mining precious metals in the New World became part of the broader European economy--through trade it wound up in the Netherlands, France, Italy, etc. It was good for a Spain but it also had a stimulative effect on everybody Spain traded with.

Another part of it is that ships laden with precious metals are an easily understood symbol of money coming in, but taxes and duties on trade are just as if not more important. Spain's wealth exploded partly because of the New World colonies but perhaps more significantly because the King of Spain inherited a bunch of very wealthy territories. Cliff's Notes version, as a result of intermarriage and fortuitous circumstances, one man named Charles Habsburg inherited half of Europe including Spain right around the time that "Spain" began its ascendancy in the New World and in Europe. There's a real opportunity to get lost in the weeds on this topic because Charles V is one of the most important white guys of the past 1000 years if not longer, but I'll skip it for now. For one lifetime Spain was actually part of an enormous inherited empire that included a lot of Europe, including most of the best bits like the Netherlands and so on. In the modern period where we look at states as entities people look back on Spain at this time as a powerful country, but really it's part of a collection of titles.

Anyway, after Charles got sick of being The Man he abdicated and split up his possessions into Spanish and Austrian halves. Spain got Spain (duh), Portugal, the better parts of Italy, and the Netherlands. A big chunk of the revenue for Spain came from the Dutch and Italian possessions.

(2) The above should clue you into why Spain was fighting basically everybody all the time. "Spain" was spread out all over Europe, and had a tangled spiderweb of obligations and interests that needed defending by force of arms. The really interesting thing is not that the Spanish state eventually exhausted itself, went bankrupted, and declined in power, but rather how successful they were and for how long. Spanish armies were all over Europe kicking rear end for 100-150 years. The problem was, it was impossible to beat literally everybody every time they fought, although they definitely made a go of it. But the process of losing these wars were expensive and in some cases led to further loss of revenues through loss of territory--they lost Portugal, they lost the Netherlands, etc.

The English make much of defeating the Spanish Armada and you'll even read them claiming that it was the death knell of Spanish hegemony. In actuality the Spanish turned around and built a new fleet better than the one they'd lost. What really killed them was losing Portugal and the Netherlands, which was very damaging to their income, at the same time that they had to fight repeated, extremely expensive wars against France. It was the wars with France that finally bankrupted Spain.

(3) Further to the above, the different possessions of the Habsburgs fit into the dynastic structure in different ways. The New World, Netherlands, and Italy supplied a lot of revenue, but Spain itself was the hammer. As of the 16th century the Spanish armies were the best in Europe, very likely in the entire world, so Spain did the heavy lifting as far as fighting was concerned--supplying the men, paying the war taxes, etc. Also, nobody in Europe was actually doing anything to deliberately develop "real economies". The concept of state involvement in the economy is a modern one, back then it was just a huge black box. In our kingdom there's a certain number of people and they do something or other for a living, and our tax farmers go out there and come back with some amount of money, and that's our revenue. The English economy didn't become healthier than the Spanish economy because the Tudors were savvy economists. Levying taxes on Castilian farmers to support endless wars didn't help, but it's not like the Spanish monarchy had access to any kind of metrics to measure economic activity or even basic social science theories to explain how things happened.

In addition, there was a general demographic decline across basically the entire planet during the 17th century, and Spain was particularly hard hit. The population decline and concomitant loss of tax base coincided with the further loss of extensive lucrative territories in Portugal and the Netherlands, and continuous expensive wars against France.

In sum, I think people generally want to look at history and be able to pick out particular causes for things that happen, preferably involving human agency. Spain must have declined because somebody hosed up, right? That's not always the case, though. Sometimes underlying conditions come together and other times they come apart. The above is a pretty rough introductory summary thing, if you had questions I could probably go on.

Thank you for the effort post, in case you couldn't tell I never took a class on the subject past high school, so I knew I was wrong and was curious to know exactly how. I guess the part I'm most curious about was why Spain would have been harder hit by demographic decline then the rest of Europe. Was it purely a matter of geography and climate, or were there other factors involved? Also, could you expand a little more regarding how the tax system worked and how did it react (or not react, as the case may be) to the changing demographic circumstances?

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Cyrano4747 posted:

On a tablet so this will be quick but 1493 is a pretty cracked out book with major problems and Spain hosed over their merchant proto middle class pretty hard with the Jewish expulsions plus a lot of awful taxation policy. I'll drop a couple decent books on the development of early mod eons once I can find my old comps notes, that is way out of my normal field. Also it kinda fucks monetary supply and prices up when savings are largely based in Capitol assets and hard currency and then you flood the local Econ with easy cash. Also the Spanish governing class was insanely inefficient and absorbed a lot of that wealth in ways that didn't exactly benefit the state

Thanks. I'd be curious what was so wrong with 1493, but I wouldn't be surprised given how many different areas the book covered that there are problems.

Anything you have on taxes I'd love to see. I'm not sure why you're describing an increase in money supply as a problem for savings in capital assets, I thought being an inflation hedge was part of the upside of holding capital assets?

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

EvanSchenck posted:

It's honestly beyond my expertise. What I know about the 17th century crisis is that human societies in pretty much every region of the planet appear to have been under serious stress at around the same time, and some of them were worse off than others, Spain among them. Sometimes its easier to say what happened rather than why.


In most of the world up through the modern, post-French Revolution period or so, governments collected taxes pretty haphazardly. Basically a person with the right connections or a lot of money could beg or buy a position as a tax collector, which made him responsible for going out and collecting a certain amount of money in poll taxes from his designated territory. Pretty much just a tax per person for being alive where the tax farmer could see you. Any extra beyond his estimated obligation, the tax farmer got to keep, which was why people wanted the job. In an emergency it was conceivable to just do a straight confiscation, which is what the Castilian crown did in the Inquisition; they just took the Jews' stuff in the process of expelling them.

As to how that system reacted to demographic change, not very well. The apparatus of the modern state as we know it, with stuff like professional officials, statistics, regular censuses, archives, etc. etc. is all pretty new within the past 200-250 years or so. Social sciences like economics can trace their antecedents to about the same time frame. By the renaissance period rulers understood the utility of conducting censuses but they couldn't do it regularly, and record-keeping and information-gathering were inconsistent as well. If you were a king the first you would hear about a problem would probably be news that there was a cholera epidemic and then your tax farmer in the area would say that he couldn't make his nut this year because half the people in his district died.

Revenue flow of a more regular and substantial nature for monarchs usually came from customs duties, excise taxes, royal monopolies, and so forth. For example the king might get a fixed amount of money every time certain goods are sold at market, like he gets a piece of every sack of wool traded in London. Or the king has the exclusive right to sell salt, and he can grant that monopoly to merchants for a percentage of their ongoing profits. That kind of thing. Those sorts of taxes are based on transactions so they're easier to collect and they also scale with economic activity. I think the big example of this was that the King of France held the monopoly on sugar trade out of Haiti, and that alone accounted for some huge percentage of total revenue, like half. Anyway if there was a decline in economic activity, perhaps due to population decline, revenue would decline in kind. Incidentally this is why the Netherlands and Italy were so important to the Spanish Empire; as hotbeds of trade and manufactures they represented a lot of taxable economic activity.

Anyway, you can probably see that one big problem with how this sort of tax system works is that it taxes producers. Clergy and nobility were invariably exempted from poll taxes, and they didn't do much trading so they didn't have to pay duty on anything, so they held most of the wealth, collected income from rents, and paid no taxes. If you were a kingdom that was, say, involved in endless wars against most of the continent, you could very well wind up strangling the people who make the economy work.

Thanks, that doesn't sound too different from how it worked in France pre revolution. I assume church lands in Spain weren't taxed by the crown? Was there a big difference between cities and rural areas in how they were taxed? I know that comes up a lot in other regions whose tax policies I'm slightly more familiar with.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Phobophilia posted:

So next question, how did Germany supplant France as the big European mainland power? Demographic collapse from constant warfare, and Bismark uniting enough smaller Germanic states into something bigger than France?

France's population grew much more slowly than the rest of Europe from 1800 to WWII, which certainly had something to do with it, and was the source of much anxiety in France.

They still had more people than Prussia at the time of the Franco-Prussian war, though.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007


Thanks, I'll put those on my list. A broad synthesis like Ertman is pretty much what I'm looking for, since it seems popular financial history focuses heavily on the Dutch and English which as you said aren't necessarily representative.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Cyrano4747 posted:

edit: I realize how out of place that "briefly" looks standing in front of 2200 words of stream of consciousness text dumping, but goddamnit I stand by it. This is the tl;dr version of this issue.

Thanks for this, I don't think anyone here has a problem with length.
I'm midway through Clark's Iron Kingdom right now, would you consider it an okay summary of Prussia for the casual reader?

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Yep, prior to the industrial revolution, the economy in peacetime would grow at an absolutely glacial pace by modern standards, so it wouldn't take all that much specie to keep up. Around 1800 2% annual growth (as an incredibly rough estimate) became the new normal, so we get bank crises and depressions every decade until well into the 20th century.

I do question the assumption that deflation would automatically benefit the nobility- I'd expect many of them would have a lot of their wealth tied up in land as opposed to gold, and many would have huge debts of their own.

But in any case, government backed fiat money is a wonderful, wonderful thing.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

JaucheCharly posted:

So why are we talking about deflation, when the gold and silver that Spanish brought into the system expanded the monetary base without expanding the material base?

We went off topic.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

I just picked up Robert Kann's A History of the Habsburg Empire at a yard sale for 50 cents. Anyone read it? Should I have saved the quarters for a pinball machine?

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

There was a free people of color militia formed in Louisiana

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1st_Louisiana_Native_Guard_%28CSA%29

Never saw action and was forced to disband.

The confederacy also tried to organize some black units in the last month of the war, all of whom enlisted, received clothing and blankets, and immediately deserted.

Patrick Cleburne suggested enlisting blacks and saw his career advancement grind to a halt. The Confederacy was founded to fight for racism and slavery, more importantly than independence.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Freudian posted:

Is there anyone in this thread who'd like to ramble about the Wars of the Three Kingdoms?

I've read Rot3k but honestly have no idea how much of it was made up, outside of the really obvious parts where brave warriors kill hundreds of the enemy single handedly. It's kind of interesting reading between the lines and I got the sneaking suspicion that Shu-han was more like glorified bandit fiefdom than the glowing way Liu Bei is portrayed in the novel. There's always an excuse made for why Liu Bei backstabbing an ally was really justified under Confucianism because he was being true to the real Han emperor, while everyone else who does the same thing is just an utter scumbag.


Fangz posted:

Do rulers ever realise that oh, crap, the heir to the throne is an utter ignoramus, and do something about it, or does no one think of their succession in such responsible terms?

It's a running theme in Romance of the Three Kingdoms that disinheriting the eldest son is a terrible, terrible idea that will lead to civil war. Whether that's based on sound political strategy or Confucian ideals, I don't know.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

xthetenth posted:

How did the economy of getting gunpowder supplies work during the early period of guns equipping a decent fraction of armies? How hard was it to stay in supplies of it, what lengths did rulers go to make sure of a steady supply and how valuable were the skills to make it?

Are you talking super early? Generally, charcoal and sulfur weren't a huge problem, but getting enough saltpeter was a huge pain. Powder makers would have to travel far and wide looking for promising piles of manure and pools of piss from which to extract it. Eventually they figured out how to farm the stuff through a primitive composting method, but it was a very inexact science and they'd still scrounge for natural supplies anywhere they could. In later periods, England would get it from India, while France had an inefficient and intrusive royal monopoly that had the right to dig up the stuff wherever they thought they could find it.

Another huge problem with early powder was dampness, which the super fine early power was highly susceptible to. Gunners would often have to dry and regrind powder before use. Actually grinding it was dangerous and very labor intensive.

Corning, which involved deliberately damping powder and then forcing it through a sieve, solved the dampness problem by creating tiny nodules with less surface area than fine powder, as well as being considerably more powerful for the same weight of powder thanks to the larger gaps between grains.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007


Thanks for the info on wood gas vehicles, my grandfather drove one during the war. Apparently they're still used in North Korea.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Wasn't there a centuries old cannon in Istanbul that actually got fired in WWI?

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Cyrano4747 posted:

Um, you do realize why the Japanese follow baseball today, right?

Because missionaries brought it over in the late 19th century, and it became a popular university sport in the early 20th with professional leagues by the 1930's?

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Don Gato posted:



And apparently Burlington is important enough to wipe off the face of the Earth? Never guessed that the Soviets hated hippies that much.

Air force has some stuff at the airport there.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007


Thanks for this, I've previously read arguments that historical crossbows were very inefficiently designed in terms of velocity vs draw weight, but they were framed as "Lol look at these dumb medievals without our fancy equations." It makes more sense to me that while you could theoretically make them more efficient, in practice they were built the way they were for convenience and safety. If you're going to be using a windlass or lever anyway, I guess it's not as big of an issue.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

SkySteak posted:

Is there any good books or documentaries about the American Civil War. Bonus points, if about Gettysburg.

McPherson's Battle Cry of Freedom is a great single volume comprehensive overview.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Even if Germany doesn't want war, France, Serbia, Austria-Hungary and Russia would still want to fight for all the reasons they did historically. I guess we're generously assuming A-H is smart enough to back down in the absence of firm German support?

Bewbies, why do you think the Russian empire would still collapse in the absence of WWI? I figure they'd be the primary beneficiary of Austrian and Ottoman decline and the Third, Fourth, and Fifth Balkan wars that would likely take WWI's place. Sure the Tsarist system was broken, but broken systems can limp along for very long times without an external stress bringing things to a head.

Sorry for diving headfirst into gay black Kaiser territory.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Karandras posted:

This isn't about tank destroyers so hopefully people still know something about it, but does anyone have any idea what sort of weapon this guy has and why he'd have it?

Only other place I can find it is in German Federal Archives but without a caption.



Any guesses are also fine!

I love guessing!

Looks like a break action shotgun- maybe he's skeet shooting?

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Alchenar posted:

Also bear in mind that that single US division at the start of the Korean war didn't have any heavy equipment with it. The NK Army was rolling around in T34-85's and the US troops didn't have anything that could handle them.

I think they had a few bazookas for AT, which just bounced off of the T-34s armor.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Wikipedia posted:

Cold War II or The New Cold War (February 2014 - Present) is the renewed ongoing tension, hostility and rivalry between the Galactic Republic against the Trade Federation led by Viceroy Nute Gunray. The conflict follows 23 years after the first Cold War ended, which was fought between the Galactic Republic and the Mandalorians and took place throughout the majority of the 20th Century, finally ending in 1991 following the defeat of Mandalore.[1][2][3] As these tensions have gradually escalated, Relations between the Galactic Republic and the Outer Rim are commented to have deteriorated to a point "beyond repair",[4] with the Trade Federation attempting to counterbalance the Galactic Republic through the creation of a new droid army.[5]

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

brozozo posted:

During the late nineteenth century, how did muzzleloading naval artillery work? At this point, you've got the guns in turrets, so do you just have a whole bunch of men on the deck in front the turret to handle loading and reloading? What are the men inside the turret doing? All in all, the 1860s and 1870s seem like a very strange time in naval history. So much innovation!

You'd keep everyone inside the turret, since that's kind of the whole point. It would be insanely hot, dark, smoky, and generally unpleasant, but at least you're relatively safe from opposing cannon fire. The guns would be wheeled back into the turret to reload like any traditional muzzle loader. Some designs had port stoppers to close off the gun ports while the gun was pulled back in to the turret for extra safety.

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

Weren't a lot of Swedish soldiers conscripted, too?

P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

HEY GAL posted:


...there's a website for things that carry other things?

Carrying things is a considerably more mainstream activity than poking people with 16 foot poles.

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P-Mack
Nov 10, 2007

A huge portion of Union manpower was spent guarding those supply lines, and it got more demanding the further they got into the south. Then the garrisons need supplies of their own, which need guarding, which needs more men, which makes Sherman say "gently caress it, let's just march all the way to Savannah."

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